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The patient is getting hemodialysis for the second time when he complains of a headache and nausea and, a little later, of becoming confused. The nurse realizes these are symptoms of
- A. dialyzer membrane incompatibility.
- B. a shift in potassium levels.
- C. dialysis disequilibrium syndrome.
- D. hypothermia.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: dialysis disequilibrium syndrome. This syndrome occurs when there is a rapid shift in electrolytes, especially in the brain, due to the removal of waste products during hemodialysis. The symptoms of headache, nausea, and confusion align with this syndrome as the brain struggles to adjust to the changes. Dialyzer membrane incompatibility (A) is unlikely as it typically presents with allergic reactions, not neurological symptoms. A shift in potassium levels (B) may cause symptoms like muscle weakness or irregular heartbeat, not headache and confusion. Hypothermia (D) would present with low body temperature, shivering, and confusion, but in this case, the symptoms are more indicative of dialysis disequilibrium syndrome.
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The nurse is caring for a patient with acute kidney injury who is being treated with hemodialysis. The patient asks if he will need dialysis for the rest of his life. Which of the following would be the best response?
- A. “Unfortunately, kidney injury is not reversible; it is permanent.”
- B. “Kidney function usually returns within 2 weeks.”
- C. “You will know for sure if you start urinating a lot all at once.”
- D. “Recovery is possible, but it may take several months.”
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: “Recovery is possible, but it may take several months.” This response is the best because acute kidney injury can be reversible with appropriate management, and recovery may take time. It is important to provide hope and encouragement to the patient.
A: “Unfortunately, kidney injury is not reversible; it is permanent.” - This is incorrect as acute kidney injury can be reversible with timely intervention and proper treatment.
B: “Kidney function usually returns within 2 weeks.” - This is incorrect because the recovery timeline varies for each individual and can take longer than 2 weeks.
C: “You will know for sure if you start urinating a lot all at once.” - This is incorrect as increased urine output may not always indicate complete recovery from acute kidney injury.
The patient is admitted with complaints of general malaise and fatigue, along with a decreased urinary output. The patient’s urinalysis shows coarse, muddy brown granular casts and hematuria. The nurse determines that the patient has:
- A. acute kidney injury from a prerenal condition.
- B. acute kidney injury from postrenal obstruction.
- C. intrarenal disease, probably acute tubular necrosis.
- D. a urinary tract infection.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: intrarenal disease, probably acute tubular necrosis. The presence of coarse, muddy brown granular casts and hematuria in the urinalysis indicates damage to the renal tubules, which is characteristic of acute tubular necrosis. This condition is a type of intrarenal disease where there is direct damage to the kidney tubules, leading to decreased urinary output and symptoms like malaise and fatigue. Prerenal and postrenal conditions do not typically present with granular casts and hematuria, making choices A and B incorrect. Urinary tract infection is also unlikely to cause the specific findings seen in this case, ruling out choice D. Therefore, choice C is the most appropriate based on the urinalysis results and clinical presentation.
Daily weights are being recorded for the patient with a urine output that has been less than the intravenous and oral intake. The weight yesterday was 5 kg. This morning it is 99 kg. The nurse understands that this corresponds to a(n)
- A. fluid retention of 1.5 liters.
- B. fluid loss of 1.5 liters.
- C. equal intake and output due to insensible losses.
- D. fluid loss of 0.5 liters.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: fluid retention of 1.5 liters. The weight gain from 5 kg to 99 kg indicates an increase of 94 kg. Since 1 kg of weight gain is approximately equal to 1 liter of fluid retention, the patient has retained 94 liters of fluid. Therefore, the correct choice is fluid retention of 1.5 liters.
Choice B is incorrect because the weight gain indicates fluid retention, not loss. Choice C is incorrect as it mentions equal intake and output, which does not match the weight gain observed. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests fluid loss, which contradicts the weight gain.
In hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome, the laboratory results are similar to those of diabetic ketoacidosis, with three major exceptions. What differences would you expect to see in patients with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome?
- A. Lower serum glucose, lower osmolality, and greater ketosis
- B. Lower serum glucose, lower osmolality, and milder ketosis
- C. Higher serum glucose, higher osmolality, and greater ketosis
- D. Higher serum glucose, higher osmolality, and no ketosis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome, patients have high blood glucose levels, leading to dehydration and increased serum osmolality. Unlike diabetic ketoacidosis, there is no significant ketosis in hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome. Therefore, the correct answer is D: Higher serum glucose, higher osmolality, and no ketosis.
A: Lower serum glucose, lower osmolality, and greater ketosis - This is incorrect because hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome is characterized by high blood glucose levels and no significant ketosis.
B: Lower serum glucose, lower osmolality, and milder ketosis - This is incorrect because hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome presents with higher glucose levels and no ketosis.
C: Higher serum glucose, higher osmolality, and greater ketosis - This is incorrect because hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome does not typically involve significant ketosis.
The patient is in a progressive care unit following arteriovenous fistula implantation in his left upper arm, and is due to have blood drawn with his next set of vital signs and assessment. When the nurse assesses the patient, the nurse should
- A. draw blood from the left arm.
- B. take blood pressures from the left arm.
- C. start a new intravenous line in the left lower arm.
- D. auscultate the left arm for a bruit and palpate for a thrill.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Auscultating the left arm for a bruit and palpating for a thrill post arteriovenous fistula implantation is crucial to assess the patency and functionality of the fistula. A bruit indicates turbulent blood flow, while a thrill signifies the presence of a strong pulse through the fistula. These assessments help identify any complications like stenosis or thrombosis. Drawing blood or taking blood pressures from the arm with the fistula can lead to inaccurate results or damage the fistula. Starting a new IV line in the left lower arm is unnecessary and not relevant to monitoring the arteriovenous fistula.