Nokea
The patient is taking low-dose erythromycin prophylactically and will start cefaclor for treating an acute infection. The nurse should discuss this with the provider because taking both medications simultaneously can cause which effect?
- A. Decreased effectiveness of cefaclor.
- B. Increased effectiveness of cefaclor.
- C. Decreased effectiveness of erythromycin.
- D. Increased effectiveness of erythromycin.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When erythromycin and cefaclor are taken together, erythromycin can inhibit the metabolism of cefaclor, leading to elevated cefaclor levels and potentially causing adverse effects. This results in a decrease in the effectiveness of cefaclor. Therefore, the nurse should discuss this potential drug interaction with the provider to consider an alternative treatment or adjust the dosages to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the concern lies with the effect on cefaclor when combined with erythromycin, not the effect on erythromycin itself.
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A nurse assesses clients on the medical-surgical unit. Which client is at greatest risk for bladder cancer?
- A. A 25-year-old female with a history of sexually transmitted diseases
- B. A 42-year-old male who has worked in a lumber yard for 10 years
- C. A 55-year-old female who has had numerous episodes of bacterial cystitis
- D. An 86-year-old male with a 50-pack-year cigarette smoking history
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The greatest risk factor for bladder cancer is a long history of tobacco use, which is reflected in an 86-year-old male with a 50-pack-year cigarette smoking history. Smoking is a well-established risk factor for developing bladder cancer. Choices A, B, and C are not directly linked to an increased risk of bladder cancer. While sexually transmitted diseases, certain occupational exposures, and recurrent urinary tract infections may pose other health risks, they are not specifically associated with an elevated risk of bladder cancer.
A nurse reviews the urinalysis of a client and notes the presence of glucose. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Document findings and continue to monitor the client.
- B. Contact the provider and recommend a 24-hour urine test.
- C. Review the client's recent dietary selections.
- D. Perform a capillary artery glucose assessment.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Glucose normally is not found in the urine. The normal renal threshold for glucose is about 220 mg/dL, which means that a person whose blood glucose is less than 220 mg/dL will not have glucose in the urine. A positive finding for glucose on urinalysis indicates high blood sugar. The most appropriate action would be to perform a capillary artery glucose assessment. The client needs further evaluation for this abnormal result; therefore, documenting and continuing to monitor is not appropriate. Requesting a 24-hour urine test or reviewing the client's dietary selections will not assist the nurse to make a clinical decision related to this abnormality.
Blood for arterial blood gas determinations is drawn from a client with pneumonia, and testing reveals a pH of 7.45, PCO2 of 30 mm Hg, and HCO3 of 19 mEq/L. The nurse interprets these results as indicative of:
- A. Compensated metabolic acidosis
- B. Compensated respiratory alkalosis
- C. Uncompensated metabolic alkalosis
- D. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Compensated respiratory alkalosis.' In this case, the client's pH is within the normal range (7.35-7.45), indicating compensation. The low PCO2 (30 mm Hg) suggests respiratory alkalosis, while the low HCO3 (19 mEq/L) is also consistent with a compensatory response. Therefore, the client has a primary respiratory alkalosis that is being compensated for by metabolic acidosis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not fit the pattern of the given blood gas values, which indicate respiratory alkalosis with metabolic compensation.
During nasotracheal suctioning, which of the following observations should be cause for concern to the nurse? Select all that apply.
- A. The client becomes cyanotic.
- B. Secretions are bloody.
- C. The client gags during the procedure.
- D. Clear to opaque secretions are removed.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: During nasotracheal suctioning, the client gagging during the procedure is a cause for concern as it can indicate discomfort or potential airway obstruction. Cyanosis, bloody secretions, or the removal of clear to opaque secretions are expected observations that the nurse should monitor for, but gagging indicates a need for immediate intervention to ensure the safety and comfort of the client. Cyanosis and bloody secretions can signify oxygenation issues and potential complications, while the removal of secretions is the goal of the suctioning procedure.
A pregnant client tells the nurse, "I am experiencing a burning pain when I urinate." How should the nurse respond?
- A. This means labor will start soon. Prepare to go to the hospital.
- B. You probably have a urinary tract infection. Drink more cranberry juice.
- C. Make an appointment with your provider to have your infection treated.
- D. Your pelvic wall is weakening. Pelvic muscle exercises should help.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pregnant clients with a urinary tract infection require prompt and aggressive treatment because cystitis can lead to acute pyelonephritis during pregnancy. The nurse should encourage the client to make an appointment and have the infection treated. Burning pain when urinating does not indicate the start of labor or weakening of pelvic muscles. Choice A is incorrect because burning pain during urination does not signify the start of labor. Choice B is incorrect because while cranberry juice may help prevent urinary tract infections, it is not a treatment. Choice D is incorrect because burning pain when urinating is not indicative of weakening pelvic muscles.