The patient refuses to bathe in the morning, stating a preference for evening baths. What is the best action for the nurse?
- A. Defer the bath until evening and pass on the information to the next shift.
- B. Tell the patient that daily morning baths are part of the 'normal' routine.
- C. Explain the importance of maintaining morning hygiene practices.
- D. Cancel hygiene for the day and attempt again in the morning.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The best action by the nurse is to respect the patient's preference and autonomy. Defer the bath until evening to allow the patient to follow their usual hygiene routine. Passing on the information to the next shift ensures continuity of care. Choice B is incorrect because it disregards the patient's preference and autonomy. Choice C, while important, does not address the patient's immediate concern. Choice D is incorrect as it does not respect the patient's wishes and may lead to further resistance to bathing.
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To ensure the safety of a client receiving a continuous intravenous normal saline infusion, how often should the LPN change the administration set?
- A. Every 4 to 8 hours
- B. Every 12 to 24 hours
- C. Every 24 to 48 hours
- D. Every 72 to 96 hours
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to change the administration set every 72 to 96 hours. This practice helps reduce the risk of infection by preventing the build-up of bacteria in the tubing. Changing the set too frequently (choices A, B, and C) may increase the chances of contamination and infection without providing additional benefits. Therefore, the LPN should follow the guideline of changing the administration set every 72 to 96 hours to maintain the client's safety during the continuous intravenous normal saline infusion.
A group of newly licensed nurses is being taught about the Braden Scale by a nurse. Which of the following responses by a newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. "The client's age is not a factor in the measurement."
- B. "The scale measures six elements."
- C. "A lower score indicates a higher risk of pressure ulcers."
- D. "Each element is scored on a range from 1 to 4 points."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer because the Braden Scale measures six elements: Sensory Perception, Moisture, Activity, Mobility, Nutrition, Friction, and Shear. The other choices are incorrect because: Choice A states that the client's age is not a factor in the measurement, which is accurate as age is not included in the Braden Scale. Choice C incorrectly states that a lower score indicates a higher risk of pressure ulcers, which is the opposite of how the Braden Scale works. Choice D inaccurately describes the scoring range of each element on the Braden Scale, which is not from 1 to 4 points but rather from 1 to 3.
A client with Parkinson's disease is being discharged. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will take my medication at the same time every day.
- B. I will increase my fiber intake to prevent constipation.
- C. I will perform range of motion exercises to maintain mobility.
- D. I will stop taking my medication if I feel better.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Patients with Parkinson's disease should not stop taking their medication if they feel better, as doing so can worsen symptoms. It is crucial for patients to continue their prescribed medication regimen as directed by their healthcare provider. Choices A, B, and C are all appropriate actions that promote the well-being of a client with Parkinson's disease. Choice A emphasizes medication adherence, which is vital for symptom management. Choice B addresses a common issue in Parkinson's patients and shows an understanding of the importance of dietary management. Choice C highlights the significance of physical activity in maintaining mobility, which is essential for overall quality of life in Parkinson's disease.
The healthcare professional is assessing a client with a history of rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following assessment findings would be most concerning?
- A. Morning stiffness
- B. Joint deformities
- C. Fever
- D. Weight loss
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In a client with rheumatoid arthritis, the presence of fever is most concerning because it may indicate an infection or systemic involvement, necessitating immediate attention. Morning stiffness and joint deformities are common manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis itself and are expected findings in these clients. Weight loss can occur in rheumatoid arthritis due to various factors such as decreased appetite or systemic inflammation, but it is not as acutely concerning as fever, which may signal a more urgent issue.
When assessing a client's skin as part of a comprehensive physical examination, what finding should a nurse expect?
- A. Capillary refill less than 3 seconds
- B. 1+ pitting edema in both feet
- C. Pale nail beds in both hands
- D. Thick skin on the soles of the feet
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Capillary refill less than 3 seconds. This finding is considered normal and indicates good peripheral perfusion. Pitting edema (choice B) and pale nail beds (choice C) are abnormal findings that may suggest underlying health issues. Thick skin on the soles of the feet (choice D) is not an expected normal finding during a skin assessment and could be indicative of a callus or other skin condition.