The patient scheduled for a Syme amputation is concerned about the ability to eventually stand on the amputated extremity. How should the nurse best respond to the patients concern?
- A. You will eventually be able to withstand full weight-bearing after the amputation.
- B. You will have minimal weight-bearing on this extremity but you'll be taught how to use an assistive device.
- C. You likely will not be able to use this extremity but you will receive teaching on use of a wheelchair.
- D. You will be fitted for a prosthesis which may or may not allow you to walk.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Syme amputation (modified ankle disarticulation amputation) is performed most frequently for extensive foot trauma and produces a painless, durable extremity end that can withstand full weight-bearing. Therefore, each of the other teaching statements is incorrect.
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A nurse is caring for a patient who has suffered an unstable thoracolumbar fracture. Which of the following is the priority during nursing care?
- A. Preventing infection
- B. Maintaining spinal alignment
- C. Maximizing function
- D. Preventing increased intracranial pressure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Patients with an unstable fracture must have their spine in alignment at all times in order to prevent neurologic damage. This is a greater threat, and higher priority, than promoting function and preventing infection, even though these are both valid considerations. Increased ICP is not a high risk.
An emergency department patient is diagnosed with a hip dislocation. The patients family is relieved that the patient has not suffered a hip fracture, but the nurse explains that this is still considered to be a medical emergency. What is the rationale for the nurses statement?
- A. The longer the joint is displaced, the more difficult it is to get it back in place.
- B. The patients pain will increase until the joint is realigned.
- C. Dislocation can become permanent if the process of bone remodeling begins.
- D. Avascular necrosis may develop at the site of the dislocation if it is not promptly resolved.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: If a dislocation or subluxation is not reduced immediately, avascular necrosis (AVN) may develop. Bone remodeling does not take place because a fracture has not occurred. Realignment does not become more difficult with time and pain would subside with time, not become worse.
A patient was fitted with an arm cast after fracturing her humerus. Twelve hours after the application of the cast, the patient tells the nurse that her arm hurts. Analgesics do not relieve the pain. What would be the most appropriate nursing action?
- A. Prepare the patient for opening or bivalving of the cast.
- B. Obtain an order for a different analgesic.
- C. Encourage the patient to wiggle and move the fingers.
- D. Petal the edges of the patients cast.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Acute compartment syndrome involves a sudden and severe decrease in blood flow to the tissues distal to an area of injury that results in ischemic necrosis if prompt, decisive intervention does not occur. Removing or bivalving the cast is necessary to relieve pressure. Ordering different analgesics does not address the underlying problem. Encouraging the patient to move the fingers or perform range-of-motion exercises will not treat or prevent compartment syndrome. Petaling the edges of a cast with tape prevents abrasions and skin breakdown, not compartment syndrome.
A nurse is planning the care of an older adult patient who will soon be discharged home after treatment for a fractured hip. In an effort to prevent future fractures, the nurse should encourage which of the following? Select all that apply.
- A. Regular bone density testing
- B. A high-calcium diet
- C. Use of falls prevention precautions
- D. Use of corticosteroids as ordered
- E. Weight-bearing exercise
Correct Answer: A,B,C,E
Rationale: Health promotion measures after an older adults hip fracture include weight-bearing exercise, promotion of a healthy diet, falls prevention, and bone density testing. Corticosteroids have the potential to reduce bone density and increase the risk for fractures.
A nurses assessment of a patients knee reveals edema, tenderness, muscle spasms, and ecchymosis. The patient states that 2 days ago he ran 10 miles and now it really hurts to stand up. The nurse should plan care based on the belief that the patient has experienced what?
- A. A first-degree strain
- B. A second-degree strain
- C. A first-degree sprain
- D. A second-degree sprain
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A second-degree strain involves tearing of muscle fibers and is manifested by notable loss of load-bearing strength with accompanying edema, tenderness, muscle spasm, and ecchymosis. A first-degree strain reflects tearing of a few muscle fibers and is accompanied by minor edema, tenderness, and mild muscle spasm, without noticeable loss of function. However, this patient states a loss of function. A sprain normally involves twisting, which is inconsistent with the patients overuse injury.
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