The patient will begin taking doxycycline to treat an infection. When should the nurse plan to give this medication?
- A. 1 hour before or 2 hours after a meal.
- B. with an antacid to minimize GI irritation.
- C. with food to improve absorption.
- D. with small sips of water.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Doxycycline is a lipid-soluble tetracycline that is better absorbed when taken with milk products and food. Taking doxycycline with food helps improve its absorption. It should not be taken on an empty stomach, as this can decrease its effectiveness. Antacids can interfere with the absorption of tetracyclines, so they should not be taken together. While it is important to stay hydrated when taking medications, small sips of water are not specifically recommended for doxycycline administration.
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During a paracentesis procedure on a client with abdominal ascites, into which position would the nurse assist the client?
- A. Supine
- B. Upright
- C. Left side-lying
- D. Right side-lying
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During a paracentesis procedure for a client with abdominal ascites, the nurse should assist the client into an upright position. Placing the client upright allows the intestines to float posteriorly, reducing the risk of intestinal laceration during catheter insertion. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a supine, left side-lying, or right side-lying position would not provide the same benefit of intestinal mobility and protection during the procedure.
After delegating care to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) for a client who is prescribed habit training to manage incontinence, a nurse evaluates the UAP's understanding. Which action indicates the UAP needs additional teaching?
- A. Toileting the client after breakfast
- B. Changing the client's incontinence brief when wet
- C. Encouraging the client to drink fluids
- D. Recording the client's incontinence episodes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct action that indicates the UAP needs additional teaching is choice B, 'Changing the client's incontinence brief when wet.' Habit training is a technique used to manage incontinence, and it is undermined by the use of absorbent incontinence briefs or pads. The nurse should re-educate the UAP on the technique of habit training, which involves scheduled toileting and promoting bladder control. Choices A, C, and D are appropriate actions that support the client's care: toileting the client after meals, encouraging fluid intake, and documenting incontinence episodes are all important aspects of managing incontinence and monitoring the client's condition.
A client has an elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN)/creatinine ratio. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Assess the client's dietary habits.
- B. Inquire about the client's use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).
- C. Hold the client's metformin (Glucophage).
- D. Contact the health care provider immediately.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN)/creatinine ratio can indicate various conditions such as dehydration, urinary obstruction, catabolism, or a high-protein diet. The initial action the nurse should take is to assess the client's dietary habits to determine if the elevated ratio is related to diet. Inquiring about the use of NSAIDs is important as they can impact kidney function, but dietary causes should be ruled out first. Holding metformin or contacting the health care provider without assessing the dietary habits would be premature actions as they may not address the underlying cause of the elevated BUN/creatinine ratio.
A 70-kg adult with chronic renal failure is on a 40-g protein diet. The client has a reduced glomerular filtration rate and is not undergoing dialysis. Which result would give the nurse the most concern?
- A. Albumin level of 2.5 g/dL
- B. Phosphorus level of 5 mg/dL
- C. Sodium level of 135 mmol/L
- D. Potassium level of 5.5 mmol/L
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In chronic renal failure, a protein-restricted diet is crucial to prevent the buildup of waste products. A low albumin level (<3.5 g/dL) indicates inadequate protein intake, raising concern as it may lead to malnutrition and tissue breakdown. Phosphorus, sodium, and potassium levels are not directly impacted by protein intake. Phosphorus levels may elevate in renal failure, but at 5 mg/dL, it is within normal range. Sodium and potassium levels are also within normal limits and not influenced by protein restriction.
The provider has ordered Kayexalate and sorbitol to be administered to a patient. The nurse caring for this patient would expect which serum electrolyte values prior to administration of this therapy?
- A. Sodium 125 mEq/L and potassium 2.5 mEq/L
- B. Sodium 150 mEq/L and potassium 3.6 mEq/L
- C. Sodium 135 mEq/L and potassium 6.9 mEq/L
- D. Sodium 148 mEq/L and potassium 5.5 mEq/L
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Severe hyperkalemia, with a potassium level of 6.9 mEq/L, requires aggressive treatment with Kayexalate and sorbitol to increase the body's excretion of potassium. The normal range for serum potassium is 3.5 to 5.5 mEq/L, so patients with the other potassium levels would not be treated aggressively or would need potassium supplementation. Therefore, option C (Sodium 135 mEq/L and potassium 6.9 mEq/L) is the correct choice as it indicates severe hyperkalemia warranting the administration of Kayexalate and sorbitol. Options A, B, and D have either potassium levels within normal limits, which would not necessitate this aggressive treatment, or potassium levels that are lower than what would typically prompt the need for Kayexalate and sorbitol.