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The patient’s significant other is terrified by the prospect o f removing life-sustaining treatments from the patient and asks why anyone would do that. What explanation should the nurse provide?
- A. “It is to save you money so you won’t have such a large financial burden.”
- B. “It will preserve limited resources for the hospital so oatbhirebr.c pomat/tieesnt ts may benefit from them.”
- C. “It is to discontinue treatments that are not helping and may be very uncomfortable.”
- D. “We have done all we can for your wife and any more treatment would be futile.”
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it explains that the decision to remove life-sustaining treatments is based on the fact that these treatments are not helping the patient and may actually be causing discomfort. This rationale aligns with the principle of beneficence, which emphasizes doing good and avoiding harm to the patient. It also respects the patient's autonomy by prioritizing their well-being and quality of life.
Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on financial reasons rather than the patient's best interest. Choice B is incorrect because it prioritizes hospital resources over individual patient care. Choice D is incorrect as it lacks clarity and may come across as insensitive to the significant other's concerns.
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The nurse cares for an adolescent patient who is dying. The patient’s parents are interested in organ donation and ask the nurse how the decision about brain death is made. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. Brain death occurs if a person is flaccid and unresponsive.
- B. If CPR is ineffective in restoring a heartbeat, the brain cannot function.
- C. Brain death has occurred if there is no breathing and certain reflexes are absent.
- D. If respiratory efforts cease and no apical pulse is audible, brain death is present.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Brain death has occurred if there is no breathing and certain reflexes are absent. Brain death is defined as the irreversible cessation of all functions of the entire brain, including the brainstem. The absence of breathing and certain reflexes, such as no response to painful stimuli or no pupillary response to light, are key indicators of brain death. This definition is crucial for determining eligibility for organ donation.
Incorrect choices:
A: Brain death occurs if a person is flaccid and unresponsive. Flaccidity and unresponsiveness are not specific criteria for diagnosing brain death.
B: If CPR is ineffective in restoring a heartbeat, the brain cannot function. The absence of a heartbeat alone does not indicate brain death.
D: If respiratory efforts cease and no apical pulse is audible, brain death is present. Respiratory cessation and the absence of pulse are not definitive signs of brain death.
A new nurse has recently joined the ICU from a different hospital, which had a much stricter policy regarding visiting hours. She expresses concern about the impact of open visiting hours on patient well-being. Which of the following would be the best explanation for the purpose of open visiting hours? Select all that apply.
- A. To better provide rest and quiet
- B. To strengthen the relationship between the family and health care provider
- C. To control the number of visitors for a patient
- D. To provide an undisturbed environment
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: To strengthen the relationship between the family and health care provider.
Rationale:
1. Open visiting hours encourage family involvement in care, fostering a partnership between healthcare providers and families.
2. Family support can positively impact patient outcomes and satisfaction.
3. It allows families to be updated on the patient's condition and involved in decision-making.
4. Strengthening the relationship can lead to better communication and trust between all parties.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: Open visiting hours may disrupt rest and quiet, but the primary purpose is not to provide rest.
C: Open visiting hours do not aim to control the number of visitors but rather encourage family involvement.
D: While open visiting hours may not provide an entirely undisturbed environment, the focus is on improving family-provider relationships.
Continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT) differs from conventional intermittent hemodialysis in that
- A. a hemofilter is used to facilitate ultrafiltration.
- B. it provides faster removal of solute and water.
- C. it does not allow diffusion to occur.
- D. the process removes solutes and water slowly.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because CRRT removes solutes and water slowly, which is beneficial for hemodynamically unstable patients. This slow removal allows for gradual fluid and electrolyte balance adjustments, reducing the risk of hemodynamic instability.
A: Incorrect - A hemofilter is indeed used in CRRT, but this choice does not highlight the key difference between CRRT and intermittent hemodialysis.
B: Incorrect - CRRT actually provides slower solute and water removal compared to intermittent hemodialysis.
C: Incorrect - Diffusion does occur in CRRT, as it is a key mechanism for solute removal in the process.
In summary, the key difference between CRRT and intermittent hemodialysis is the slow removal of solutes and water in CRRT, making choice D the correct answer.
A patient is being mechanically ventilated in the synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation mode at a rate of 4 breaths/min. Spontaneous re spirations are 12 breaths/min. The patient receives a dose of morphine sulfate, and now respi rations decrease to 4 breaths/min. What adjustments may need to be made to the patient’s ve ntilator settings?
- A. Add positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP).
- B. Add pressure support.
- C. Change to assist/control ventilation at a rate of 4 breathabsi/rmb.cionm. /test
- D. Increase the synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation respiratory rate.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Change to assist/control ventilation at a rate of 4 breaths/min. When the patient's spontaneous respirations decrease to match the ventilator rate, it indicates that the patient is not actively participating in breathing. Changing to assist/control ventilation allows the patient to trigger breaths when they desire, ensuring a more synchronized and comfortable breathing pattern.
A: Adding PEEP may help improve oxygenation but is not directly related to the issue of decreased spontaneous respirations.
B: Adding pressure support provides additional support during inspiration but does not address the underlying issue of decreased spontaneous respirations.
D: Increasing the SIMV respiratory rate would not address the patient's decreased spontaneous respirations and could potentially lead to overventilation.
The nurse is caring for a postoperative patient with chroni c obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which assessment would be a cue to the patient developing postoperative pneumonia?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Change in sputum characteristics
- C. Hypoventilation and respiratory acidosis
- D. Pursed-lip breathing
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Change in sputum characteristics. This is a cue for postoperative pneumonia in a COPD patient because it can indicate an infection in the lungs. Postoperative pneumonia is a common complication in patients with COPD due to impaired lung function and weakened immune system. Other choices are incorrect: A) Bradycardia is not a specific indicator of postoperative pneumonia. C) Hypoventilation and respiratory acidosis can be seen in patients with COPD but are not specific to postoperative pneumonia. D) Pursed-lip breathing is a coping mechanism for patients with COPD and is not directly related to postoperative pneumonia.