The physician declares after delivering the placenta of a client during a cesarean section that it appears that the client has a placenta accreta. Which of the following maternal complications would be consistent with this diagnosis?
- A. Blood loss of 2,000 mL.
- B. Blood pressure of 160/110.
- C. Jaundiced skin color.
- D. Shortened prothrombin time.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Placenta accreta causes significant blood loss.
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A client has been receiving magnesium sulfate for severe preeclampsia for 12 hours. Her reflexes are 0 and her respiratory rate is 10. Which of the following situations could be a precipitating factor in these findings?
- A. Apical heart rate 104 bpm.
- B. Urinary output 240 mL/12 hr.
- C. Blood pressure 160/120.
- D. Temperature 100°F.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Decreased urinary output can lead to magnesium toxicity.
A client is being discharged on Coumadin (warfarin) post-pulmonary embolism after a cesarean delivery. Which of the following laboratory values indicates that the medication is effective?
- A. PT (prothrombin time): 12 sec (normal is 10-13 seconds).
- B. INR (international normalized ratio): 2.5 (normal is 1.0-1.4).
- C. Hematocrit 55%.
- D. Hemoglobin 10 g/dL.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An INR of 2.5 indicates therapeutic anticoagulation.
A postpartum patient calls the clinic and reports to the nurse feelings of fatigue, tearfulness, and anxiety. What is the nurse’s most appropriate response at this time?
- A. “When did these symptoms begin?”
- B. “Sounds like normal postpartum depression.”
- C. “Are you having trouble getting enough sleep?”
- D. “Are you able to get out of bed and provide care for your baby?”
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "When did these symptoms begin?" The nurse's response should address the patient's concerns and gather more information to assess the situation accurately. By asking when the symptoms began, the nurse can determine the duration and severity of the symptoms, enabling appropriate intervention.
Choice B is incorrect because assuming the symptoms are due to "normal postpartum depression" without further assessment is premature and may overlook other potential causes. Choice C focuses solely on sleep and may not address the underlying issues causing the patient's symptoms. Choice D assumes the patient's ability to provide care for the baby without first addressing the patient's emotional well-being.
Which anticipatory guidance action by the nurse makes role transition to parenthood easier?
- A. Helps the new parents identify resources.
- B. Recommends employing babysitters frequently.
- C. Tells the parents about the realities of parenthoo
- D. Offers a home phone number and tells parents to call if they have a question.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because helping new parents identify resources promotes a smoother role transition by providing support and guidance. This action empowers parents to access necessary services and assistance. Choice B is incorrect as frequent babysitting does not address the parents' transition needs. Choice C is incorrect because focusing on the negatives may increase anxiety. Choice D is incorrect as it lacks proactive support and guidance.
A woman has just had a low forceps delivery. For which of the following should the nurse assess the woman during the immediate postpartum period?
- A. Infection.
- B. Bloody urine.
- C. Heavy lochia.
- D. Rectal abrasions.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Heavy lochia indicates potential hemorrhage.