Nokea
The physician is having difficulty finding the appropriate dose for the patient taking warfarin (Coumadin). What can the nurse suggest that may solve this problem?
- A. Pharmacogenetic testing
- B. Start bivalirudin (Angiomax) IV
- C. Change from warfarin (Coumadin) to clopidogrel (Plavix) and aspirin
- D. Change from warfarin (Coumadin) to enoxoparin (Lovenox) injections
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pharmacogenetic testing evaluates genetic variations affecting drug metabolism, helping optimize dosing for medications like warfarin.
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Physical traits expressed by an individual is the definition for which term?
- A. Allele
- B. Genomics
- C. Phenotype
- D. Chromosomes
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Phenotype refers to the observable physical or biochemical characteristics of an organism, as determined by both genetic makeup and environmental influences.
Which of the following molecules can function both as complement initiators and as opsonins?
- A. C3b
- B. C-reactive protein
- C. MBL
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, All of the above. C3b, C-reactive protein, and MBL can all function as complement initiators and opsonins. C3b is a key complement protein involved in both processes. C-reactive protein can activate complement and enhance phagocytosis. MBL can also activate complement and enhance phagocytosis by binding to pathogens. All choices can serve as both initiators of the complement cascade and as opsonins, making D the correct answer.
What is a primary reason that the normal immune response fails to contain the HIV infection?
- A. CD4+ T cells become infected with HIV and are destroyed.
- B. The virus inactivates B cells, preventing the production of HIV antibodies.
- C. Natural killer cells are destroyed by the virus before the immune system can be activated.
- D. Monocytes ingest infected cells, differentiate into macrophages, and shed viruses in body tissues.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: HIV specifically targets CD4+ T cells, depleting the immune system's ability to mount an effective response against pathogens.
Which of the following best describes granuloma formation?
- A. IgE-mediated mast cell activation
- B. Persistent recruitment of macrophages around undigested antigens
- C. Deposition of immune complexes in tissues
- D. Complement-mediated cell lysis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Granuloma formation is characterized by the persistent recruitment of macrophages around undigested antigens. Initially, macrophages attempt to phagocytose the antigen but fail to digest it completely, leading to the formation of a granuloma. This process is a protective mechanism to isolate the antigen and prevent its spread. IgE-mediated mast cell activation (choice A) is associated with allergic reactions, not granuloma formation. Deposition of immune complexes in tissues (choice C) is linked to immune complex-mediated diseases, not granuloma formation. Complement-mediated cell lysis (choice D) involves the destruction of target cells by the complement system, which is not directly related to granuloma formation.
The Fc regions of antibodies play a role in which of the following antibody effector functions:
- A. Degranulation of mast cells
- B. Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC)
- C. Complement activation
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The Fc regions of antibodies interact with various immune cells and molecules to mediate effector functions.
- A: Degranulation of mast cells: Fc receptors on mast cells bind to antibody Fc regions, triggering degranulation.
- B: ADCC: Fc regions bind to Fc receptors on immune cells, facilitating target cell killing.
- C: Complement activation: Antibody binding to antigens can activate the complement system via the Fc region.
Therefore, the correct answer is D because the Fc regions of antibodies are involved in all mentioned effector functions.