Nokea
The physician orders ampicillin The dose is 100 mg/kg per dose for a newly admitted neonate. The neonate weighs 1,350 grams. How many milligrams should the nurse administer?
- A. mg.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The neonate weighs 1,350 g (1.35 kg). The dose is 100 mg/kg, so 100 mg/kg × 1.35 kg = 135 mg. The nurse should administer 135 mg.
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A client asks about the benefits of breastfeeding for contraception. Which of the following responses by the nurse is most accurate?
- A. Breastfeeding is a reliable contraceptive method for the first year postpartum.
- B. The lactational amenorrhea method is effective only if the client is exclusively breastfeeding and amenorrheic.
- C. Breastfeeding prevents ovulation permanently while nursing.
- D. Breastfeeding is equally effective whether the client supplements with formula.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The lactational amenorrhea method (LAM) is effective for up to 6 months postpartum if the client is exclusively breastfeeding, amenorrheic, and the infant is under 6 months. It is not reliable for a year, does not permanently prevent ovulation, and is less effective with formula supplementation.
A primiparous client diagnosed with cystitis at LIM 48 hours postpartum who is receiving intravenous ampicillin asks the nurse, "Can I still continue to breast-feed my baby?" The nurse should tell the client:
- A. You can continue to breast-feed as long as you want to do so.
- B. Alternate your breast-feeding with formula feeding to help you rest.
- C. You'll need to discontinue breast-feeding until the antibiotic therapy is stopped.
- D. You'll need to modify your technique by manually pumping your breasts.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Ampicillin is generally safe for breastfeeding, allowing the client to continue without interruption.
A breast-feeding primiparous client with a midline episiotomy is prescribed ibuprofen 200 mg orally. The nurse instructs the client to take the medication:
- A. Before going to bed.
- B. Midway between feedings.
- C. Immediately after a feeding.
- D. When providing supplemental formula.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Taking ibuprofen after feeding minimizes the amount of medication in breast milk during the next feeding.
A couple is inquiring about vasectomy as a permanent method of contraception. Which teaching statement would the nurse include in the teaching plan?
- A. Another method of contraception is needed until the sperm count is 0.
- B. Vasectomy is easily reversed if children are desired in the future.
- C. Vasectomy is contraindicated in males with prior history of cardiac disease.
- D. Vasectomy requires only a yearly follow-up once the procedure is completed.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: After a vasectomy, another contraception method is needed until a follow-up semen analysis confirms a zero sperm count, ensuring sterility.
A 19-year-old primigravid client at 38 weeks' gestation is admitted to the hospital in active labor that began 8 hours ago. When the client's cervix is 7 cm dilated and the presenting part is at +1 station, the client tells the nurse, 'I need to push!' Which of the following would the nurse do next?
- A. Use the McDonald procedure to widen the pelvic opening.
- B. Increase the rate of oxygen and intravenous fluids.
- C. Tell the client to use a pant-blow pattern of breathing.
- D. Tell the client to push only when absolutely necessary.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: At 7 cm dilation, the client is not fully dilated, and pushing can cause cervical trauma. A pant-blow breathing pattern helps manage the urge to push until full dilation. The McDonald procedure is for cervical cerclage, and increasing oxygen/fluids or encouraging pushing is inappropriate.