Nokea
The physician orders propranolol (Inderal) for a client's angina. The effect of this drug is to:
- A. Act as a vasoconstrictor
- B. Block beta stimulation in the heart
- C. Act as a vasodilator
- D. Increase the heart rate
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Block beta stimulation in the heart. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that works by blocking the beta receptors in the heart, which reduces the heart's workload and oxygen demand, making it an effective treatment for angina. By blocking beta stimulation, propranolol helps to decrease heart rate, blood pressure, and myocardial contractility. This ultimately improves oxygen supply to the heart muscle.
Explanation for other choices:
A: Act as a vasoconstrictor - Propranolol does not act as a vasoconstrictor; it actually can cause vasodilation in some cases.
C: Act as a vasodilator - Propranolol is not primarily a vasodilator; its main action is to block beta stimulation in the heart.
D: Increase the heart rate - Propranolol actually decreases heart rate by blocking beta receptors in the heart.
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When administering oxygen to a client, under which of the ff situations should the nurse discontinue the administration and notify the physician?
- A. When the client’s color does not improve
- B. When the client level of consciousness decreases
- C. When the client is in a state of respiratory arrest
- D. When the client cannot effectively use the diaphragm
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. When the client is in a state of respiratory arrest, immediate medical intervention is required. Discontinuing oxygen administration and notifying the physician is crucial to address the life-threatening situation. A: Improving color is a positive sign. B: Decreased consciousness may indicate a need for further assessment but does not require immediate discontinuation of oxygen. D: Inability to use the diaphragm may require intervention but does not indicate an immediate threat as respiratory arrest does.
A 19 y.o. student develops trigeminal neuralgia. Which of the ff. actions will most likely aggravate her pain?
- A. Sleeping
- B. Reading
- C. Eating
- D. Cooking
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Eating. Chewing food can trigger trigeminal nerve pain due to the movement and pressure applied on the nerve. The other choices (A: Sleeping, B: Reading, D: Cooking) do not involve the same level of jaw movement and pressure on the trigeminal nerve, thus are less likely to aggravate the pain. Therefore, eating is the most likely action to worsen trigeminal neuralgia symptoms in this scenario.
A 57-year old patient had a right lower lobectomy. The nurse should initiate this action when the patient arrives from the Post Anesthesia Care Unit:
- A. immediately administer pain relief
- B. keep patient in semi-fowler’s postion
- C. turn client every hour
- D. notify the family to report pateint’s condition
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: immediately administer pain relief. After a lobectomy, the patient may experience significant pain due to the surgical incision and chest tube insertion. Providing prompt pain relief is crucial to ensure the patient's comfort and prevent complications such as shallow breathing or limited mobility. This action will also aid in the patient's early recovery and promote better outcomes.
Choice B (keep patient in semi-fowler's position) is not the priority upon arrival from the Post Anesthesia Care Unit as pain management takes precedence. Choice C (turn client every hour) is important for preventing complications but is not the immediate action required upon arrival. Choice D (notify the family to report patient's condition) is important but not as urgent as providing pain relief to the patient.
What should the client at risk for developing AIDS be advised to do?
- A. Abstain from anal intercourse
- B. Have a semen analysis done
- C. Have an ELISA test for antibodies
- D. Inform all sexual contacts
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because an ELISA test for antibodies is crucial to detect HIV infection early. This test can help diagnose HIV before symptoms appear, allowing for early intervention and treatment. Choice A is important but not specific to HIV prevention. Choice B is irrelevant for HIV prevention. Choice D, while important, should not take precedence over getting tested for HIV.
A client has an abnormal result on a Papanicolaou test. After admitting that she read her chart while the nurse was out of the room, the client asks what dysplasia means. Which definition should the nurse provide?
- A. Presence of completely undifferentiated tumor cells that don’t resemble cells of the tissues of their origin
- B. Increase in the number of normal cells in a normal arrangement in a tissue or an organ
- C. Replacement of one type of fully differentiated cell by another in tissues where the second type normally isn’t found
- D. Alteration in the size, shape, and organization of differentiated cells
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because dysplasia refers to the alteration in the size, shape, and organization of differentiated cells. Dysplasia is an abnormal growth or development of cells that can be a precursor to cancer. It is characterized by changes in cell size, shape, and organization, which can be seen in Papanicolaou tests.
Choice A is incorrect because it describes an undifferentiated tumor, not dysplasia. Choice B is incorrect as it describes hyperplasia, not dysplasia. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to metaplasia, not dysplasia.
In summary, dysplasia is specifically about the abnormal changes in the appearance and organization of differentiated cells, making choice D the correct definition.