The PN is reviewing care instructions with a client who has diabetic retinopathy and is experiencing glare around lights. What should the PN reinforce with the client?
- A. Cover eyes with moist, cool compresses to reduce glare
- B. Make adjustments to personal schedule to avoid driving at night
- C. Exert pressure on the inner canthus when tearing occurs
- D. Apply an eye shield at bedtime after instilling eye drops
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Avoiding driving at night is recommended for clients experiencing glare around lights due to diabetic retinopathy. This can help reduce the risk of accidents and visual discomfort. Making adjustments to the personal schedule to avoid nighttime driving is a practical approach to manage the glare. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because covering eyes with compresses, exerting pressure on the inner canthus, or applying an eye shield are not effective strategies for managing glare associated with diabetic retinopathy.
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Which condition is commonly screened for in newborns using the Guthrie test?
- A. Phenylketonuria (PKU)
- B. Cystic fibrosis
- C. Down syndrome
- D. Sickle cell anemia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The Guthrie test is specifically designed to screen newborns for phenylketonuria (PKU), a metabolic disorder that can lead to intellectual disability if left untreated. Phenylketonuria is caused by the deficiency of an enzyme required to metabolize the amino acid phenylalanine. Screening for PKU in newborns is crucial as early diagnosis and intervention can prevent the severe consequences associated with the condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as the Guthrie test is not used to screen for cystic fibrosis, Down syndrome, or sickle cell anemia.
In obtaining an orthostatic vital sign measurement, what action should the nurse take first?
- A. Count the client's radial pulse
- B. Apply a blood pressure cuff
- C. Instruct the client to lie supine
- D. Assist the client to stand upright
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct first action when obtaining an orthostatic vital sign measurement is to instruct the client to lie supine. This allows for establishing a baseline measurement of vital signs before any positional changes. Counting the client's radial pulse (Choice A) is a step that follows after the initial supine position to assess changes in pulse rate. Applying a blood pressure cuff (Choice B) and assisting the client to stand upright (Choice D) are actions that come later in the process after the baseline measurements are obtained in the supine position.
Which type of isolation precaution is required for a patient with tuberculosis (TB)?
- A. Droplet precautions
- B. Contact precautions
- C. Airborne precautions
- D. Standard precautions
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Airborne precautions. Tuberculosis (TB) is transmitted via airborne particles, thus requiring airborne precautions to prevent the spread of infection. This includes using an N95 respirator to filter out small infectious particles. Droplet precautions (Choice A) are used for diseases that spread through large respiratory droplets. Contact precautions (Choice B) are for direct or indirect contact with the patient or their environment. Standard precautions (Choice D) are used for all patients to prevent the spread of infection through blood, bodily fluids, non-intact skin, and mucous membranes.
While caring for a client with an AV fistula in the left forearm, the PN observed a palpable buzzing sensation over the fistula. What action should the PN take?
- A. Loosen the fistula dressing
- B. Report the presence of a bounding pulse
- C. Document that the fistula is intact
- D. Apply gentle pressure over the site
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A palpable buzzing sensation, known as a thrill, over an AV fistula indicates proper functioning. The correct action for the PN is to document that the fistula is intact. Choice A is incorrect because there is no need to loosen the fistula dressing when the thrill is felt. Choice B is incorrect as a bounding pulse is not related to the observed buzzing sensation. Choice D is incorrect because applying pressure is unnecessary when a thrill is present, indicating proper AV fistula function.
At one minute after birth, an infant is crying, has a heart rate of 140, has acrocyanosis, resists the suction catheter, and keeps his arms extended and his legs flexed. What is the Apgar score?
- A. 4
- B. 6
- C. 8
- D. 10
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The Apgar score is based on five components: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and color. In this case, the infant has a heart rate over 100 (2 points), is crying (2 points indicating good respiratory effort), resists the catheter (2 points for good reflex irritability), but has acrocyanosis (partial point deduction of 1). Thus, the Apgar score at one minute after birth would be 8. Choice A is incorrect as the given signs indicate a higher score. Choice B is incorrect as the signs described support a score above 6. Choice D is incorrect as it represents a perfect score which is not the case here due to acrocyanosis.