Nokea
The postpartum client is being discharged to home with a streptococcal puerperal infection. The client is taking antibiotics but asks the nurse what precautions she should take at home to prevent spreading the infection to her husband, newborn, and toddler. Which is the best response by the nurse?
- A. “No precautions are necessary since you are taking antibiotics.”
- B. “You should always wear a mask when caring for your newborn and toddler.”
- C. “Wash your hands before caring for your children and after toileting and perineal care.”
- D. “Your husband should provide all cares for both children until your infection is gone.”
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The course of an endometrial infection is approximately 7 to 10 days, and thus standard precautions should be in place for that period of time even if the client has started antibiotics. Puerperal infections are not spread by droplets, and thus a mask is not necessary. Other than hand hygiene, no additional precautions need to be taken by the client in her home. The client is able to provide cares for her children, but hand washing is required before cares.
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The client, whose parity is 1, had a vaginal delivery 6 days ago and arrived home yesterday after treatment for endometritis. The home health nurse visits the client and plans teaching after seeing which most concerning item in the client’s bathroom?
- A. A box of tampons on the floor outside of the shower stall.
- B. Loofa bath sponge sitting on the seat of the shower stall.
- C. Damp towel bunched on the towel bar and near the floor.
- D. Can of bathroom cleaner on the floor of the shower stall.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should plan teaching about the use of tampons during postpartum. The tampon may irritate or dry the vagina, holds lochia in the body, and increases the risk of infection. The client should be instructed to wear a peripad. Loofas or bath sponges for bathing the body postpartum are not contraindicated. While it is a good idea to hang towels neatly so that they dry more rapidly and reduce mold growth, this is not a priority for teaching. The bathroom cleaner would be dangerous to an older child who is more mobile, but the client’s parity is 1. The client would be wise to start considering safety issues by placing this out of reach, but this is not the priority teaching item.
The client had a D&C for treating an incomplete spontaneous abortion. Which statements should the nurse include when preparing the client for discharge the same day? Select all that apply.
- A. “Return for a blood transfusion if bleeding continues to be dark red.”
- B. “Intravenous antibiotics will be prescribed every 8 hours for two days.”
- C. “I can make a referral to a pregnancy loss support group if you like.”
- D. “You need to use contraceptives to avoid getting pregnant for one year.”
- E. “Someone should remain with you at home for the first 12 to 24 hours.”
Correct Answer: C,E
Rationale: The client who had an incomplete spontaneous abortion may experience grief and loss. The nurse should offer to do a referral to a pregnancy loss support group to provide ongoing support after hospital discharge. A D&C is usually performed on an outpatient basis if there are no complications, and the client can return home a few hours after the procedure. Someone should remain with the client to ensure that she is safe and no complications develop. Dark red blood does not necessarily indicate the need for a blood transfusion; it could be old blood. The client should notify the HCP if experiencing heavy bleeding following the D&C. A D&C for treating incomplete spontaneous abortion does not require the routine administration of IV antibiotics. There is no medical need for the client who had a spontaneous abortion to avoid pregnancy for one year.
The primigravida client has been pushing for 2 hours when the infant’s head emerges. The infant fails to deliver, and the obstetrician states that the turtle sign has occurred. Which should be the nurse’s interpretation of this information?
- A. There is cephalopelvic disproportion.
- B. The infant has a shoulder dystocia.
- C. The infant’s position is occiput posterior.
- D. The infant’s umbilical cord is prolapsed.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The “turtle sign” occurs when the infant’s head suddenly retracts back against the mother’s perineum after emerging from the vagina, resembling a turtle pulling its head back into its shell. This head retraction is caused by the infant’s anterior shoulder being caught on the back of the maternal pubic bone (shoulder dystocia), preventing delivery of the remainder of the infant. Cephalopelvic disproportion occurs when the head is too large to fit through the client’s pelvis. Fetal descent ceases, and infant’s head would not emerge. Persistent occiput posterior results in prolonged pushing; however, once the head is born, the remainder of the birth occurs without difficulty. A cord prolapse occurs when the umbilical cord enters the cervix before the fetal presenting part and is considered a medical emergency.
The nurse is counseling the client who is pregnant. The nurse should teach that which assessment finding requires follow-up with the HCP?
- A. Dependent edema
- B. Edema in the hands
- C. Generalized edema
- D. Edema occurring every evening
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse needs to teach the client that generalized edema is a sign of preeclampsia and requires follow-up by an HCP for further evaluation. Dependent edema is typical during pregnancy, resulting from relaxation of the blood vessels in the legs and decreased venous blood return. Edema in the hands is typical during pregnancy, particularly when a high-sodium diet is consumed. Edema that occurs every evening is a normal finding associated with decreased venous return and pelvic congestion from daily activity.
The client has been in labor for 21 hours. Induction was started 16 hours ago, and she is now dilated 5 cm. She has made little progress, and there has been no fetal descent. The HCP identifies cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD). The nurse should prepare the client for which mode of delivery?
- A. Traditional vaginal delivery
- B. Forceps-assisted delivery
- C. Vacuum-assisted delivery
- D. Cesarean section delivery
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A fetus diagnosed with CPD is unable to be delivered vaginally and requires a cesarean section birth. A vaginal delivery is contraindicated once CPD has been identified due to the risk of fetal and maternal trauma. Forceps delivery is contraindicated once CPD has been identified due to the risk of fetal and maternal trauma. Vacuum delivery is contraindicated once CPD has been identified due to the risk of fetal and maternal trauma.