The pregnant client asks the nurse, who is teaching a prepared childbirth class, when she should expect to feel fetal movement. The nurse responds that fetal movement usually can first be felt during which time frame?
- A. 8 to 12 weeks of pregnancy
- B. 12 to 16 weeks of pregnancy
- C. 18 to 20 weeks of pregnancy
- D. 22 to 26 weeks of pregnancy
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Subtle fetal movement (quickening) can be felt as early as 18 to 20 weeks of gestation, and it gradually increases in intensity. Eight to 12 weeks of pregnancy is too early to expect the first fetal movement to be felt. Twelve to 16 weeks of pregnancy is too early to expect the first fetal movement to be felt. Twenty-two to 26 weeks of pregnancy is later than expected to feel the first fetal movement.
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Which nursing instruction given to the client complaining about shortness of breath is most appropriate?
- A. Contact your health care provider immediately.
- B. Decrease your activity level to conserve oxygen.
- C. Ask your physician for a mild sedative.
- D. Sleep with your upper body elevated on pillows.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Sleeping with the upper body elevated reduces pressure on the diaphragm, easing shortness of breath.
The experienced nurse is observing the new nurse determine the fetal position of the pregnant client using Leopold maneuver. The experienced nurse determines that the new nurse correctly identifies the first Leopold maneuver when placing the hands in which position illustrated first?
- A. Image A
- B. Image B
- C. Image C
- D. Image D
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This illustration shows the first step of Leopold’s maneuver. The nurse palpates the fundus to determine which fetal body part (e.g., head or buttocks) occupies the uterine fundus. Image A shows the fourth Leopold maneuver. The nurse’s fingertips are used to determine the location of the cephalic prominence. Image C shows the third Leopold maneuver (“Pawlik maneuver”). During this maneuver the fetal part in the fundal region is compared with the part in the lower uterine segment. It is completed primarily to confirm that the fetus is in a cephalic (head) presentation. Image D shows the second Leopold maneuver. The second maneuver determines the location of the fetal back or spine.
The laboring client tells the nurse that she wants to avoid an episiotomy if possible. Which response by the nurse is best?
- A. “Usually making an episiotomy incision is avoided whenever possible.”
- B. “Having an episiotomy reduces prolonged pushing and perineal trauma.”
- C. “An episiotomy is routine because it can prevent pelvic floor damage.”
- D. “Tell me more about your concerns about having an episiotomy.”
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: This statement is best. An episiotomy may be used in some circumstances but is usually avoided if possible. Use of episiotomy increases (not reduces) perineal trauma and increases healing time. Use of episiotomy is not routine, does not decrease pelvic floor damage, and may increase the severity of the trauma. Having the client tell the nurse more about her concerns regarding episiotomy is unnecessary and avoids responding to the client’s comment.
Which client statement indicates a need for immediate intervention?
- A. I feel the baby move daily.
- B. I have mild swelling in my ankles.
- C. I haven't felt the baby move today.
- D. I'm eating a balanced diet.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A lack of fetal movement may indicate fetal distress, requiring immediate assessment and intervention.
The nurse explains that true labor contractions are characterized by which feature?
- A. Irregular timing
- B. Increasing intensity and frequency
- C. Relief with walking
- D. Occurrence only at night
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: True labor contractions increase in intensity and frequency, distinguishing them from false labor.