Nokea
The pregnant client is experiencing low back pain. After determining that the client is not in labor, the nurse instructs the client to perform which exercises to increase comfort and decrease the incidence of the low back pain? Select all that apply.
- A. Kegel exercises
- B. Pelvic tilt exercises
- C. Leg raises
- D. Back stretch
- E. Stepping
Correct Answer: B,C,D
Rationale: Pelvic tilt exercises strengthen and stretch the abdominal and back muscles to relieve pain. Leg raises strengthen and stretch leg and abdominal muscles to relieve pain. Back stretch relieves pain from the back muscles caused by lordosis. Kegel exercises strengthen the pubococcygeal muscle, decreasing urinary leakage, but do not relieve back pain. Stepping provides aerobic exercise, which is good for circulation but is not recommended to decrease low back pain.
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The nurse is reviewing the medication history of the client during preconception counseling. The client reports taking isotretinoin for acne. Which is the nurse’s best response?
- A. “Stop taking isotretinoin now! It can cause serious birth defects if you become pregnant.”
- B. “You need to be on some type of birth control right now. Getting pregnant is not an option.”
- C. “Talk with your HCP about changing isotretinoin before you consider becoming pregnant.”
- D. “Once you are off of isotretinoin for treating acne, you can then safely become pregnant.”
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best response is to have the client consult her HCP so another medication can be prescribed. This response indicates that isotretinoin (Accutane) is not safe but that alternative medications can be prescribed. Responding to the client emphatically can create anxiety and fear. Telling the client that getting pregnant is not an option is a paternal response and does not facilitate open communication. Clients must wait one month after cessation of isotretinoin before becoming pregnant.
When the nurse discusses the tasks to be accomplished during the client's visit at 24 weeks' gestation, which routine test will be performed?
- A. Coombs' test
- B. Glucose tolerance test
- C. Urinalysis
- D. Rubella titer
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The glucose tolerance test is routinely performed around 24-28 weeks to screen for gestational diabetes.
When looking in the mirror at her abdomen, the postpartum client says to the nurse, “My stomach still looks like I’m pregnant!” The nurse explains that the abdominal muscles, which separate during pregnancy, will undergo which change?
- A. Regain tone Within the first week after birth
- B. Regain prepregnancy tone with exercise
- C. Remain separated, giving the abdomen a slight bulge
- D. Regain tone as the weight gained during pregnancy is lost
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For most women, it takes about 6 weeks (not one week) to regain abdominal wall muscle tone to the prepregnancy state, and usually only with exercise. The “still-pregnant” appearance is caused by relaxation of the abdominal wall muscles. With exercise, most women can regain prepregnancy abdominal muscle tone within about 6 weeks. If the client delivers a very large infant, the abdominal muscles may separate, but the separation will become less apparent over time. Weight loss alone will not strengthen the abdominal muscles.
The nurse is screening prenatal clients who may be carriers for potential genetic abnormalities. Which ethnic group should the nurse identify as having the lowest risk for hemoglobinopathies, such as sickle cell disease and thalassemia?
- A. African descent
- B. Southeast Asian descent
- C. Scandinavian descent
- D. Mediterranean descent
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Individuals of Scandinavian descent are not an identified risk group for hemoglobinopathies. Individuals of African descent are at risk for hemoglobinopathies and should be offered carrier screening. Individuals of Southeast Asian descent are at risk for hemoglobinopathies and should be offered carrier screening. Individuals of Mediterranean descent are at risk for hemoglobinopathies and should be offered carrier screening.
The laboring client is requesting IV pain medication instead of epidural anesthesia. The nurse determines that which factor would most definitely contraindicate the administration of nalbuphine hydrochloride?
- A. Completely dilated and 100 percent effaced
- B. Fetal heart rate (FHR) of 120 beats per minute
- C. Reassuring FHR variability and accelerations
- D. Variable decelerations with reassuring FHR
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Systemic medications, such as nalbuphine hydrochloride (Nubain), should not be administered when advanced dilation is present (transition stage of labor) because its use can lead to respiratory depression if given too close to the time of delivery. An FHR of 120 bpm is within normal parameters of 120 to 160 bpm. Reassuring FHR variability and accelerations are interpreted as adequate placental oxygenation and do not contraindicate administration of nalbuphine hydrochloride. If mild variable decelerations are present but the FHR pattern remains reassuring, nalbuphine hydrochloride can still be administered.