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The pregnant client tells the nurse that she smokes two packs per day (PPD) of cigarettes, has smoked in other pregnancies, and has never had any problems. What is the nurse’s best response?
- A. “I’m glad that your other pregnancies went well. Smoking can cause both maternal and fetal problems, and it is best if you could quit smoking.”
- B. “You need to stop smoking for the baby’s sake. You could have a spontaneous abortion with this pregnancy if you continue to smoke.”
- C. “Smoking can lead to having a large baby, which can make delivery difficult. You may even need a cesarean section.”
- D. “Smoking less would eliminate the risk for your baby, and you would feel healthier during your pregnancy.”
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse is acknowledging that the client did not experience problems with her other pregnancies but is also informing the client that smoking can cause maternal and fetal problems during pregnancy. Telling the client to stop smoking for the baby’s sake is confrontational, making the client less likely to listen to the nurse’s teaching. Although spontaneous abortion is associated with tobacco use during pregnancy, the nurse is using a scare tactic rather than therapeutic communication. Smoking can lead to a fetus that is small for gestational age, not a large baby. Decreasing her smoking intake should be suggested; however, it does not eliminate the risk to the baby completely.
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Before hospitalization, an adolescent client had decided to give up her newborn for adoption. The client had an uncomplicated vaginal delivery and is still committed to her decision. Which intervention should the nurse exclude?
- A. Offer to the client a transfer to a different unit within the hospital.
- B. Talk to the client about having possible feelings of ambivalence.
- C. Initiate a case management or social work consult for the client.
- D. Notify her family to ensure that support is available upon her discharge.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Offering to transfer the client is appropriate and would not be excluded. The postpartum unit may be filled with sounds and sights that may distress the client. It would be appropriate for the nurse to discuss possible ambivalence with the client, as she may have increased feelings of attachment, love, and grief after delivery. Having those feelings does not necessarily mean that the client has made the wrong decision. Initiating a case management or social work consult is appropriate and would not be excluded. The client may not have support systems available because she may not have disclosed her pregnancy to others. The adolescent may not have disclosed the pregnancy to family. Although it would be appropriate for the nurse to explore the client’s support system with the client, the nurse should not contact the client’s family.
Using Naegele's Rule, the nurse can assume the client's expected delivery date to be approximately which date?
- A. 13-Nov
- B. 23-Nov
- C. 3-Dec
- D. 20-Dec
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Naegele's Rule: Subtract 3 months from the first day of the last menstrual period (March 13) and add 7 days, resulting in December 3.
The laboring client suddenly experiences a dramatic drop in the FHR from the 150s to the 110s. A vaginal exam reveals the presence of the fetal cord protruding through the cervix. What should be the nurse’s first intervention?
- A. Put continuous pressure on the presenting part to keep it off the cord
- B. Place the bed in Trendelenburg position
- C. Insert a urinary catheter and instill saline
- D. Continue to monitor the FHR
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should first exert continuous pressure on the presenting part to prevent further cord compression. This is continued until birth, which is usually by cesarean section. The bed should be placed in Trendelenburg position to further prevent pressure on the cord, but only after pressure is placed on the presenting part. A catheter may be inserted and 500 mL of warmed saline instilled to help float the head and prevent further compression, but only after pressure is placed on the presenting part. The fetus is continually monitored throughout until birth.
Which client is at highest risk for ectopic pregnancy?
- A. A client with a history of pelvic inflammatory disease
- B. A client with a normal ultrasound
- C. A client with regular menstrual cycles
- D. A client taking prenatal vitamins
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pelvic inflammatory disease increases the risk of ectopic pregnancy by causing tubal scarring, which can impede embryo passage.
The postpartum client tells the nurse that she has pain when she breastfeeds. The nurse identifies that the infant has poor latch during breastfeeding. Which breast appearance shows that the client is experiencing symptoms associated with poor latch?
- A. Normal breasts
- B. Left breast with mastitis
- C. Engorged breasts
- D. Breasts with reddened, cracked nipples
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: This graphic shows normal breasts. This graphic shows the left breast with mastitis. Mastitis frequently presents as redness, warmth, and tenderness of the breast tissue, rather than the nipple. This graphic shows engorged breasts. This graphic shows breasts that have reddened nipples, one of which is cracked. If proper latch is not obtained during breastfeeding, the newborn’s sucking may cause nipple cracking, blistering, and bleeding.