Nokea
The presenting diameter in brow presentation is
- A. Mentovertical
- B. Submentobregmatic
- C. Suboccipitofrontal
- D. Occipitalfrontal
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The presenting diameter in brow presentation is the suboccipitofrontal diameter. This is because in brow presentation, the fetal head is in a deflexed position, with the largest diameter being from the subocciput (back of the head) to the frontal bone (forehead). This allows the head to enter the pelvis in the transverse diameter.
A: Mentovertical - This refers to the chin to the top of the head, not the correct diameter for brow presentation.
B: Submentobregmatic - This refers to the chin to the bregma, not the correct diameter for brow presentation.
D: Occipitalfrontal - This refers to the back of the head to the forehead, not the correct diameter for brow presentation.
You may also like to solve these questions
Chemical diabetes mellitus is a classification based on
- A. Symptom are absent and abnormal specific laboratory results
- B. Presence of symptoms and abnormal specific laboratory results
- C. Previous congenital abnormalities and unexplained stillbirth
- D. Previous birth of a baby weighing >4.3kg and spontaneous abortion
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Symptom are absent and abnormal specific laboratory results. Chemical diabetes mellitus refers to a condition where there are abnormal specific laboratory results indicating diabetes without the presence of any symptoms. This classification is based on objective data from laboratory tests rather than subjective symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the definition of chemical diabetes mellitus, which focuses on laboratory results rather than symptoms, congenital abnormalities, or pregnancy outcomes.
According to the American College of Surgeons (ACS) and the National Surgical Quality Improvement Program (NSQIP) guidelines for preoperative evaluation of the geriatric patient, the preoperative evaluation should include all of the following except
- A. Cognitive ability
- B. Functional status
- C. Competency assessment
- D. Frailty score
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. Cognitive ability is important for decision-making during surgery.
2. Functional status helps assess the patient's ability to recover post-surgery.
3. Competency assessment ensures the patient can consent to surgery.
4. Frailty score predicts surgical outcomes in geriatric patients.
5. Cognitive ability is not typically assessed preoperatively in the ACS/NSQIP guidelines.
Summary:
- A: Cognitive ability is not typically part of preoperative evaluation.
- B: Functional status is important for post-surgery recovery.
- C: Competency assessment is crucial for informed consent.
- D: Frailty score helps predict surgical outcomes in geriatric patients.
The relationship between abdominal pain and vomiting typically can be characterized by saying
- A. When the vomiting precedes pain, the likelihood of surgical abdomen increases appreciably
- B. Conditions that may produce only mild nausea in the younger patient often will cause vomiting in older patients
- C. The majority of surgical abdomens do not produce vomiting as a primary symptom
- D. The presence of bile in vomitus suggests pyloric stenosis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: The presence of bile in vomitus suggests that the vomit originated from the small intestine or stomach, indicating an obstruction in the pyloric region.
Step 2: Pyloric stenosis is a condition characterized by narrowing of the opening from the stomach to the small intestine, leading to projectile vomiting with bile.
Step 3: Therefore, the presence of bile in vomitus suggests pyloric stenosis, making option D the correct answer.
Summary: Option A is incorrect because vomiting preceding pain does not necessarily indicate a surgical abdomen. Option B is incorrect as the severity of symptoms is not solely based on age. Option C is incorrect as some surgical abdomens can present with vomiting as a primary symptom.
The earliest onset of cephalohematoma is
- A. Six hours postnatally
- B. Twelve hours postnatally
- C. Eighteen hours postnatally
- D. Immediately after birth
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Six hours postnatally. Cephalohematoma is a collection of blood between a baby's skull and the periosteum. It typically appears several hours after birth due to trauma during delivery, causing bleeding under the periosteum. This allows time for the blood to accumulate and form a distinct swelling, making the onset around six hours postnatally. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical timeline for the development of cephalohematoma.
How does gestational diabetes impact fetal development?
- A. Causes macrosomia
- B. Leads to congenital anomalies
- C. Reduces fetal movements
- D. Increases risk of preterm birth
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because gestational diabetes can lead to macrosomia, which is excessive fetal growth due to high blood sugar levels in the mother. This occurs as the fetus receives excess glucose from the mother, resulting in increased fat deposition and larger birth weight. Congenital anomalies (B) are not directly caused by gestational diabetes but by genetic or environmental factors. Reduced fetal movements (C) are not a typical effect of gestational diabetes. While gestational diabetes can increase the risk of preterm birth (D), the primary impact on fetal development is macrosomia.