The public health nurse is addressing eye health and vision protection during an educational event. What statement by a participant best demonstrates an understanding of threats to vision?
- A. Im planning to avoid exposure to direct sunlight on my next vacation.
- B. Ive never exercised regularly, but Im going to start working out at the gym daily.
- C. Im planning to talk with my pharmacist to review my current medications.
- D. Im certainly going to keep a close eye on my blood pressure from now on.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because reviewing current medications with a pharmacist is crucial in understanding potential threats to vision. Some medications can have side effects that impact eye health. This proactive approach shows an understanding of how medication can affect vision.
Choice A is incorrect because while avoiding direct sunlight is important for eye health, it does not address other potential threats. Choice B is incorrect because regular exercise, while beneficial for overall health, does not directly relate to understanding threats to vision. Choice D is incorrect because monitoring blood pressure is important for cardiovascular health but does not specifically address threats to vision.
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A nurse wants to find the daily weights of apatient. Which form will the nurse use?
- A. Database
- B. Progress notes
- C. Patient care summary
- D. Graphic record and flow sheet
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Graphic record and flow sheet. The nurse will use a graphic record and flow sheet to document the patient's daily weights. This form allows for easy tracking and visualization of weight trends over time. Database (A) is used for storing large amounts of data but not ideal for daily weight tracking. Progress notes (B) are for narrative descriptions of patient care, not specific for daily weights. Patient care summary (C) provides an overview of the patient's care plan, not detailed daily weights.
A placenta previa when the placental edge just reaches the internal os is called
- A. total.
- B. partial.
- C. low-lying.
- D. marginal.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, marginal. Placenta previa is classified based on the proximity of the placental edge to the internal os. In a marginal placenta previa, the placental edge just reaches the internal os. This is a crucial distinction as it poses a higher risk for bleeding during labor. Total placenta previa covers the entire internal os, partial placenta previa partially covers the internal os, and low-lying placenta is when the placenta is close to but not covering the internal os. Therefore, D is correct as it accurately describes the specific position of the placenta edge in relation to the internal os in cases of marginal placenta previa.
A nurse is caring for a teenage girl who has had an anaphylactic reaction after a bee sting. The nurse is providing patient teaching prior to the patients discharge. In the event of an anaphylactic reaction, the nurse informs the patient that she should self-administer epinephrine in what site?
- A. Forearm
- B. Thigh
- C. Deltoid muscle
- D. Abdomen
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Thigh. When administering epinephrine during an anaphylactic reaction, the thigh is the recommended site due to its large muscle mass and quick absorption rate. Steps: 1. Remove safety cap. 2. Firmly push the auto-injector against the thigh until it clicks. 3. Hold in place for a few seconds. 4. Seek medical help immediately. Rationale for incorrect choices: A: Forearm - Not recommended due to smaller muscle mass and slower absorption. C: Deltoid muscle - Not preferred as it may not provide as rapid absorption as the thigh. D: Abdomen - Not ideal due to potential fat layers that could affect absorption speed.
Several residents of a long-term care facility have developed signs and symptoms of viral conjunctivitis. What is the most appropriate action of the nurse who oversees care in the facility?
- A. Arrange for the administration of prophylactic antibiotics to unaffected residents.
- B. Instill normal saline into the eyes of affected residents two to three times daily.
- C. Swab the conjunctiva of unaffected residents for culture and sensitivity testing.
- D. Isolate affected residents from residents who have not developed conjunctivitis.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Isolate affected residents from residents who have not developed conjunctivitis. This is the most appropriate action to prevent the spread of viral conjunctivitis in a long-term care facility. By isolating affected residents, the nurse can minimize the risk of transmission to other residents.
Choice A is incorrect because prophylactic antibiotics are not effective against viral conjunctivitis. Choice B is also incorrect as normal saline does not treat viral conjunctivitis but may provide comfort. Choice C is unnecessary as viral conjunctivitis is typically diagnosed clinically and does not require culture testing.
A 37-year-old man is brought to the clinic by his wife because he is experiencing loss of motor function and sensation. The physician suspects the patient has a spinal cord tumor and hospitalizes him for diagnostic testing. In light of the need to diagnose spinal cord compression from a tumor, the nurse will most likely prepare the patient for what test?
- A. Anterior-posterior x-ray
- B. Ultrasound
- C. Lumbar puncture
- D. MRI
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: MRI. MRI is the most appropriate test for diagnosing spinal cord compression from a tumor as it provides detailed images of soft tissues, including the spinal cord and surrounding structures. It can accurately identify the location, size, and extent of the tumor. Anterior-posterior x-ray (A) is not as detailed and may not clearly show soft tissue abnormalities. Ultrasound (B) is not typically used for imaging the spinal cord and may not provide sufficient information. Lumbar puncture (C) is used to collect cerebrospinal fluid and is not helpful for diagnosing spinal cord compression from a tumor.
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