Review Varneys Midwifery 6th Edition Test Bank related questions and content
The relationship between abdominal pain and vomiting typically can be characterized by saying
A. When the vomiting precedes pain, the likelihood of surgical abdomen increases appreciably
B. Conditions that may produce only mild nausea in the younger patient often will cause vomiting in older patients
C. The majority of surgical abdomens do not produce vomiting as a primary symptom
D. The presence of bile in vomitus suggests pyloric stenosis NURS 6550 Final Exam Questions and Answers 2024 QUESTION 1
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When the vomiting precedes pain, the likelihood of surgical abdomen increases appreciably. This statement is based on how the timing of symptoms can indicate the severity of the underlying condition. In cases where vomiting occurs before the onset of abdominal pain, it can be a sign of a more serious issue requiring urgent medical attention, such as a surgical abdomen. This sequence of symptoms suggests that there may be an obstruction or other critical issue in the gastrointestinal tract that is leading to the symptoms of vomiting and pain. Therefore, recognizing the relationship between the timing of symptoms like abdominal pain and vomiting is crucial in determining the urgency of intervention and appropriate medical management.
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Match the conditions in column A with their correct description in column B
A. Torticollis
B. Damage to the sternomastoid muscles
C. Erb’s palsy
D. Damage to the upper brachial plexus
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Torticollis is caused by damage to the sternomastoid muscles, while Erb’s palsy affects the upper brachial plexus.
The gradual rewarming process in the management of hypothermia neonatorum is aimed at
A. Providing energy
B. Providing comfort
C. Preventing shock
D. Preventing burns
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The primary goal of gradual rewarming is to prevent shock and stabilize the neonate's condition.
M. R. is a 52-year-old female who presents complaining of significant abdominal pain, which she rates as 8 to 9 on a 1 to 10 scale. The pain has been going on for a matter of hours, and she is afraid it wont go away on its own. She denies any nausea or vomiting, and she cannot remember precisely when her last bowel movement occurred probably it was a few days ago. She reports that she is always constipated. On physical examination, she is tachycardic but otherwise has normal vital signs her abdomen is tensely rigid, but no point tenderness to palpation is appreciated. The entire abdomen percusses as tympanicthere is no distinct dullness over the upper quadrants. Bowel sounds are present but hypoactive and intermittent. There is rebound tenderness to palpation. The AGACNP suspects
A. Perforated bowel
B. Peritonitis
C. Ischemic bowel
D. Intestinal abscess
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The patient's presentation with significant abdominal pain, tachycardia, tensely rigid abdomen, rebound tenderness, hypoactive and intermittent bowel sounds, and tympanic percussion of the entire abdomen is concerning for peritonitis. Peritonitis is inflammation of the peritoneum, which is the lining of the abdominal cavity. It is often caused by an infection or irritation, such as from a perforated bowel, which can lead to the leakage of bowel contents into the peritoneal cavity. The presentation of peritonitis includes severe abdominal pain, guarding, rebound tenderness, abdominal distension, and signs of systemic inflammation like tachycardia and fever. In this case, the lack of point tenderness to palpation and the absence of dullness over the upper quadrants make perforated bowel less likely, while the tense rigidity of the abdomen and rebound tenderness are more suggestive of diffuse peritonitis. Ischem
Homeopathy, music therapy, and hydrotherapy are among the
A. Systemic methods of pain relief
B. Regional analgesia methods of pain relief
C. Inhalational analgesia methods of pain relief
D. Non-pharmacological methods of pain relief
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Homeopathy, music therapy, and hydrotherapy are non-pharmacological methods.
A Para 3+0 client who was scheduled for the fourth cesarean section comes in active labor. The MAIN complication of concern in this case is
A. Placenta abruption
B. Rupture of the uterus
C. Prolonged labor
D. Precipitate labor
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The main concern for a woman with multiple previous cesarean sections is uterine rupture.
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