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The RN is teaching a client about the initiation of the prescribed abstinence therapy using disulfiram (Antabuse). What information should the client acknowledge understanding?
- A. Completely abstain from heroin or cocaine use.
- B. Remain alcohol-free for 12 hours prior to the first dose.
- C. Attend monthly meetings of Alcoholics Anonymous.
- D. Admit to others that he is a substance user.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Remain alcohol-free for 12 hours prior to the first dose." It is essential for the client to understand the importance of abstaining from alcohol for at least 12 hours before starting disulfiram to prevent potential adverse reactions. Choice A is incorrect because disulfiram is specifically used to deter alcohol consumption, not heroin or cocaine use. Choice C is not directly related to the initiation of disulfiram therapy and attending AA meetings is not a requirement for taking disulfiram. Choice D is irrelevant and unnecessary for the initiation of disulfiram therapy.
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The RN is preparing medications for a client with bipolar disorder and notices that the client discontinued antipsychotic medication for several days. Which medication should also be discontinued?
- A. Lithium (Lithotabs).
- B. Benztropine (Cogentin).
- C. Alprazolam (Xanax).
- D. Magnesium (Milk of Magnesia).
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is Benztropine (Cogentin). Benztropine is commonly prescribed to manage side effects of antipsychotic medications. Therefore, if the antipsychotic medication is discontinued, there would be no need for Benztropine. Lithium is a mood stabilizer used in bipolar disorder, not directly related to antipsychotic use. Alprazolam is an anxiolytic, and Magnesium (Milk of Magnesia) is a laxative, neither of which is typically associated with antipsychotic medication use.
An adolescent with anorexia nervosa is participating in a cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) program. Which behavior indicates that the therapy is effective?
- A. Client adheres to a meal plan and gains weight.
- B. Client discusses the impact of the disorder on family.
- C. Client expresses a desire to change behavior.
- D. Client reduces the frequency of binge eating.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In treating anorexia nervosa with cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), the primary goals are to normalize eating behaviors and achieve weight restoration. Therefore, adherence to a meal plan and weight gain are crucial indicators of treatment effectiveness. While discussing the impact of the disorder on the family (Choice B) can be beneficial for therapy, it may not directly indicate the effectiveness of CBT in treating anorexia nervosa. Expressing a desire to change behavior (Choice C) is a positive step, but actual behavioral changes such as adhering to a meal plan are more indicative of progress. Reducing the frequency of binge eating (Choice D) is more relevant for other eating disorders like bulimia nervosa, not anorexia nervosa.
Child protective services have removed 10-year-old Christopher from his parents' home due to neglect. Christopher reveals to the nurse that he considers the woman next door his 'nice' mom, that he loves school, and gets above-average grades. The strongest explanation of this response is:
- A. Temperament
- B. Genetic factors
- C. Resilience
- D. Paradoxical effects of neglect
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Resilience is the ability to adapt and cope with adverse situations. In this case, Christopher's positive outlook, love for school, and good academic performance despite experiencing neglect demonstrate resilience. Choice A, 'Temperament,' refers to an individual's natural behavioral style and would not fully explain Christopher's response. Genetic factors (Choice B) are not directly related to his ability to cope with neglect. Choice D, 'Paradoxical effects of neglect,' does not fit the situation as Christopher's positive response is more indicative of resilience than paradoxical effects.
A young adult female visits the mental health clinic complaining of diarrhea, headache, and muscle aches. She is afebrile, denies chills, and all laboratory findings are within normal limits. During the physical assessment, the client tells the RN that her sister thinks she is neurotic and calls her a hypochondriac. Which response is best for the RN to provide?
- A. Unless your sister has a medical education, ignore her comments.
- B. I can hear that your sister comments are over-whelming you.
- C. Do you think it's possible that you might be a hypochondriac?
- D. Besides your sister's comments, what in your life is troubling you?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Gilbert, age 19, is described by his parents as a 'moody child' with an onset of odd behavior around age 14, which caused him to suffer academically and socially. Gilbert has lost the ability to complete household chores, is reluctant to leave the house, and is obsessed with the locks on the windows and doors. Due to Gilbert's early and slow onset of what is now recognized as schizophrenia, his prognosis is considered:
- A. Favorable with medication
- B. In the relapse stage
- C. Improvable with psychosocial interventions
- D. To have a less positive outcome
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In cases of early and slow onset of schizophrenia, the prognosis is generally less positive. This means that the outlook for individuals like Gilbert, who showed signs of schizophrenia at a young age, is often poorer. Option A is incorrect because while medication can help manage symptoms, the overall prognosis is still less favorable. Option B is incorrect since relapse stage typically refers to a period of worsening symptoms after initial improvement. Option C is incorrect because while psychosocial interventions can be beneficial, the underlying early and slow onset of schizophrenia indicates a less positive outcome.