Nursing Process Questions and Answers PDF

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The spouse of a client with gastric cancer expresses concern that the couple’s children may develop this type of cancer when they’re older. When reviewing risk factors for gastric cancer with the client and family, the nurse explains that a certain blood type increases the risk by 10%. The nurse is referring to:

  • A. Type A
  • B. Type AB
  • C. Type B
  • D. Type O
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Type A. Individuals with blood type A have a slightly higher risk of developing gastric cancer compared to other blood types. This is due to the presence of certain antigens associated with Type A blood that may increase susceptibility to gastric cancer. In this case, the nurse mentions a 10% increased risk for individuals with Type A blood, which aligns with the known epidemiological data.

Choice B: Type AB is incorrect because individuals with Type AB blood do not have a known increased risk of gastric cancer.

Choice C: Type B is incorrect because individuals with Type B blood do not have a known increased risk of gastric cancer.

Choice D: Type O is incorrect because individuals with Type O blood actually have a slightly lower risk of developing gastric cancer compared to individuals with Type A blood.

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. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus asks the nurse about taking an oral antidiabetic agent. The nurse explains that these medications are only effective if the client:

  • A. prefers to take insulin orally.
  • B. has type 1diabetes.
  • C. has type 2 diabetes.
  • D. is pregnant and has type 2 diabet
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Rationale:
1. Oral antidiabetic agents target insulin resistance, common in type 2 diabetes.
2. Type 1 diabetes lacks insulin production, making oral agents ineffective.
3. Choice A is incorrect as insulin cannot be taken orally.
4. Choice C is incorrect as oral agents are not indicated for type 2 diabetes.
5. Choice D is incorrect as pregnancy does not affect the type of diabetes.

. A client is diagnosed with the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). The nurse should anticipate which laboratory test result?

  • A. Decreased serum sodium level
  • B. Increased blood urea nitrogen
  • C. Decreased serum creatinine level (BUN) level
  • D. Increased hematocrit
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased serum sodium level. In SIADH, there is an excessive release of ADH, causing water retention and dilution of sodium in the blood. This leads to hyponatremia. B: Increased blood urea nitrogen and C: Decreased serum creatinine level are not typically associated with SIADH. D: Increased hematocrit is not a typical finding in SIADH, as it is more related to dehydration. Therefore, the most anticipated laboratory test result in a client with SIADH is a decreased serum sodium level due to dilutional hyponatremia.

An agitated, confused client arrives in the emergency department. The client’s history includes type 1 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and angina pectoris. Assessment reveals pallor, diaphoresis, headache, and intense hunger. A stat blood glucose sample measures 42mg/dl, and the client is treated for an acute hypoglycemic reaction. After recovery, the nurse teaches the client to treat hypoglycemia by ingesting:

  • A. 2 to 5 of a simple carbohydrate.
  • B. 18 to 20 g of a simple carbohydrat
  • C. 10 to 15 g of a simple carbohydrate.
  • D. 25 to 30 g of a simple carbohydrate.
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 10 to 15 g of a simple carbohydrate. This amount of carbohydrate is recommended for treating hypoglycemia in clients with diabetes to quickly raise blood glucose levels without causing hyperglycemia. Consuming too little carbohydrate may not effectively raise blood glucose levels, while consuming too much may lead to a rapid spike followed by a rebound hypoglycemia. Options A and B provide insufficient amounts of carbohydrate, while option D provides excessive carbohydrate, increasing the risk of hyperglycemia. Therefore, option C is the most appropriate choice for effectively treating hypoglycemia in this client.

How many liters per minute of oxygen should be administered to the patient with emphysema?

  • A. 2 L/min
  • B. 10 L/min
  • C. 6 L/min
  • D. 95 L/min
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 2 L/min. In emphysema, there is impaired gas exchange due to damaged lung tissue, resulting in decreased oxygen levels. Administering too high a flow rate can lead to oxygen toxicity. The standard oxygen therapy for emphysema is 1-2 L/min to maintain oxygen saturation without causing harm. Higher flow rates like 10 L/min (B) and 6 L/min (C) are excessive and can lead to oxygen toxicity. 95 L/min (D) is dangerously high and not suitable for oxygen therapy in emphysema. Therefore, A is the correct choice for safe and effective oxygen administration in emphysema.

A client is diagnosed with megaloblastic anemia caused by vitamin B12 deficiency. The physician begins the client on cyanocobalamin (Betalin-12), 100mcg IM daily. Which substance influences Vitamin B12 absorption?

  • A. Intrinsic factor
  • B. Histamine
  • C. Hydrochloric acid
  • D. Liver enzyme
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: Intrinsic factor is a glycoprotein produced by the stomach that is essential for the absorption of vitamin B12 in the ileum. Without intrinsic factor, vitamin B12 absorption is impaired, leading to megaloblastic anemia. Histamine and hydrochloric acid are not directly involved in vitamin B12 absorption. Liver enzymes are not implicated in the absorption process. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

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