The standing orders for a patient include acetaminophen 650 mg every 4 hours prn for headache. After assessing the patient, the nurse identifies the need for headache relief and determines that the patient has not had acetaminophen in the past 4 hours. Which action will the nurse take next?
- A. Administer the acetaminophen.
- B. Notify the health care provider to obtain a verbal order.
- C. Direct the nursing assistive personnel to give the acetaminophen.
- D. Perform a pain assessment only after administering the acetaminophen.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer the acetaminophen. The rationale is as follows:
1. The patient has a standing order for acetaminjson for headache relief.
2. The nurse has assessed that the patient needs headache relief and has not had the medication in the past 4 hours.
3. Administering the acetaminophen aligns with the prescribed treatment plan and the patient's needs.
Summary:
- Option B is incorrect because obtaining a verbal order is not necessary when there is a standing order.
- Option C is incorrect as nursing assistive personnel should not administer medications without direct supervision.
- Option D is incorrect as pain assessment should precede medication administration to ensure appropriateness.
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Which information indicates a nurse has a good understanding of a goal? It is a statement describing the patient’s accomplishments without a time
- A. restriction.
- B. It is a realistic statement predicting any negative responses to treatments.
- C. It is a broad statement describing a desired change in a patient’s behavior.
- D. It is a measurable change in a patient’s physical state.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: A goal should be measurable to track progress effectively.
Step 2: The statement "a measurable change in a patient's physical state" indicates a specific and quantifiable outcome.
Step 3: This aligns with the SMART criteria for goal setting - Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Time-bound.
Step 4: Other choices lack the specificity and measurability required for a clear goal.
Step 5: Choice A talks about restriction, which is not directly related to understanding a goal.
Step 6: Choice B focuses on negative responses, which is not necessarily indicative of understanding the goal.
Step 7: Choice C is vague and lacks the specificity of a measurable outcome.
Which patient should be monitored most closely for dehydration?
- A. The 50-year-old with an ileostomy
- B. The 72-year-old with diabetes mellitus
- C. The 19-year-old with chronic asthma
- D. The 28-year-old with a broken femur
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, the 50-year-old with an ileostomy, should be monitored most closely for dehydration. Patients with an ileostomy have a higher risk of dehydration due to increased fluid loss through the stoma. Monitoring their fluid intake, output, electrolyte levels, and signs of dehydration is crucial to prevent complications. The other choices are less likely to experience severe dehydration compared to the patient with an ileostomy. The 72-year-old with diabetes mellitus may be at risk for dehydration, but it is not as high a risk as the patient with an ileostomy. The 19-year-old with chronic asthma and the 28-year-old with a broken femur are not as directly related to dehydration compared to the patient with an ileostomy.
The client is suspected of having myasthenia gravis. Edrophonium (Tensilon) 2 mg is administered intravenously to determine the diagnosis. Which of the following indicates that the client has myasthenia gravis?
- A. Joint pain following administration of the medication
- B. Feelings of faintness, dizziness, hypotension, and signs of flushing in the client
- C. A decrease in muscle strength within 30 to 60 seconds following administration of the medication.
- D. An increase in muscle strength within 30 to 60 seconds following administration of the medication
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because in myasthenia gravis, which is characterized by muscle weakness and fatigue, the administration of edrophonium will temporarily improve muscle strength due to increased availability of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction. This improvement should be noted within 30 to 60 seconds after the administration of the medication.
Choice A is incorrect because joint pain is not a typical response to edrophonium in the context of myasthenia gravis.
Choice B is incorrect because feelings of faintness, dizziness, hypotension, and flushing are more indicative of a cholinergic crisis, which occurs when too much edrophonium is administered.
Choice D is incorrect because an increase in muscle strength post-edrophonium administration would not be expected in a client with myasthenia gravis.
Following hypophysectomy, patients require extensive teaching regarding this major alteration in their lifestyle
- A. Abnormal distribution of body hair
- B. Lifetime dependency on hormone replacement
- C. The need to drink many fluids to replace those lost
- D. The need to undergo repeat surgical procedures
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (Lifetime dependency on hormone replacement) because after hypophysectomy (removal of the pituitary gland), patients will no longer produce essential hormones like growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, etc. Therefore, they will require lifelong hormone replacement therapy to maintain normal bodily functions.
A: Abnormal distribution of body hair is not directly related to hypophysectomy.
C: While fluid intake may be important post-surgery, it is not the primary focus of teaching.
D: There is typically no need for repeat surgical procedures after a hypophysectomy, as it is a one-time surgery to address specific issues.
In summary, choice B is correct as it directly addresses the long-term implications of the surgery on hormone production and the need for replacement therapy, while the other choices are not directly relevant to the post-operative care of hypophysectomy patients.
Which of the ff factors makes it important for the nurse to provide special care to older clients with an immune system disorder?
- A. Age-related changes
- B. Use of multiple drugs (Polypharmacy)
- C. Poor diet
- D. Reduced activity levels
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Age-related changes. Older clients are more susceptible to immune system disorders due to age-related changes such as a weakened immune response, increased inflammation, and decreased production of immune cells. Providing special care is important to address these specific vulnerabilities.
Incorrect choices:
B: Use of multiple drugs (Polypharmacy) - While polypharmacy can impact the immune system, it is not the primary factor for providing special care to older clients with immune system disorders.
C: Poor diet - While diet plays a role in overall health, it is not the main factor necessitating special care for older clients with immune system disorders.
D: Reduced activity levels - Although physical activity is important for overall health, reduced activity levels are not the primary reason for providing special care to older clients with immune system disorders.