Nokea
The surgeon orders cefazolin (Ancef) 1 g to be given I.V. at 7:30 a.m. when the client's surgery is scheduled at 8:00 a.m. What is the primary reason to start the antibiotic exactly at 7:30 a.m.?
- A. Legally the medication has to be given at the ordered time.
- B. The antibiotic is most effective in preventing infection if it is given 30 to 60 minutes before the operative incision is made.
- C. The postoperative dose of Ancef needs to be started exactly 8 hours after the preoperative dose of Ancef.
- D. The peak and titer levels are needed for antibiotic therapy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Administering cefazolin 30 to 60 minutes before incision ensures optimal tissue levels to prevent surgical site infections. Timing is critical for prophylactic efficacy, not legal requirements or postoperative dosing schedules.
You may also like to solve these questions
A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the emergency department. Which of the following respiratory patterns requires immediate action?
- A. Deep, rapid respirations with long expirations.
- B. Shallow respirations alternating with long expirations.
- C. Regular depth of respirations with frequent pauses.
- D. Short expirations and inspirations.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Deep, rapid respirations (Kussmaul respirations) indicate diabetic ketoacidosis, a life-threatening condition requiring immediate intervention.
A nurse notes that a client has kyphosis and generalized muscle atrophy. Which of the following problems is a priority when the nurse develops a nursing plan of care?
- A. Infection.
- B. Confusion.
- C. Ineffective coughing and deep breathing.
- D. Difficulty chewing solid foods.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Kyphosis and muscle atrophy impair chest expansion and cough effectiveness, increasing pneumonia complications. Ineffective coughing and deep breathing is the priority to clear secretions and prevent worsening infection. Infection is already present. Confusion and chewing difficulties are less immediate concerns.
The nurse is caring for a client with angle-closure glaucoma. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate from the primary healthcare provider (PHCP)?
- A. timolol
- B. hydroxyzine
- C. phenylephrine
- D. imipramine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Timolol, a beta-blocker, reduces intraocular pressure in angle-closure glaucoma by decreasing aqueous humor production. Hydroxyzine, phenylephrine, and imipramine are not used for this condition.
A 34-year-old female with a history of asthma is admitted to the emergency department. The nurse notes that the client is dyspneic, with a respiratory rate of 35 breaths/minute, nasal flaring, and use of accessory muscles. The nurse should first:
- A. Administer bronchodilators as ordered.
- B. Initiate oxygen therapy as ordered.
- C. Start I.V. fluids as ordered.
- D. Teach the client diaphragmatic breathing.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In an acute asthma attack with severe dyspnea, initiating oxygen therapy corrects hypoxemia, a priority. Bronchodilators are critical but secondary to oxygenation. I.V. fluids and breathing techniques are supportive but not immediate priorities.
The physician orders intestinal decompression with a Cantor tube for a client with an intestinal obstruction. In order to determine effectiveness of intestinal decompression the nurse should evaluate the client to determine if:
- A. Fluid and gas have been removed from the intestine.
- B. The client has had a bowel movement.
- C. The client's urinary output is adequate.
- D. The client can sit up without pain.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The effectiveness of a Cantor tube is determined by the removal of fluid and gas from the intestine, relieving the obstruction. Bowel movements, urinary output, or sitting up without pain are not direct indicators of decompression success. CN: Physiological adaptation; CL: Evaluate