Nokea
The teaching plan for a postpartum client who is about to be discharged should include which of the following instructions?
- A. "It is normal for your breasts to be tender. You should call the physician if you also have redness and fatigue."?
- B. "Because your baby was delivered vaginally, you might have to urinate more frequently."?
- C. "It is normal to run a low-grade temperature for a few days. If it is higher than 100°F, call your physician."?
- D. "Be sure to call your physician if your vaginal discharge becomes bright red."?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the postpartum client to call the physician if their vaginal discharge becomes bright red. The vaginal discharge after birth is called lochia, and a return to red or containing clots could indicate impending hemorrhage or infection, necessitating notification of the physician.
Choice A is incorrect because although some tenderness may be expected, redness and fatigue are clinical manifestations of mastitis, not normal postpartum changes. Choice B is also incorrect as increased frequency of urination after vaginal delivery could indicate a urinary tract infection, not a normal postpartum change. Choice C is incorrect because running a low-grade temperature for a few days is not expected postpartum; an elevated temperature above 100°F should be reported to the physician as it could indicate infection.
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A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:
- A. naloxone (Narcan)
- B. labetalol (Normodyne)
- C. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
- D. thiothixene (Navane)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing respiratory depression due to opiate overdose. Naloxone (Narcan) is an opioid antagonist that can rapidly reverse the effects of opiates by competitively binding to opioid receptors and displacing the opiates. This action can restore normal respiration and consciousness. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a non-selective beta-blocker used to manage hypertension, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid overdose. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to manage psychotic disorders, not opioid toxicity.
Health promotion activities are designed to help clients:
- A. reduce the risk of illness
- B. maintain maximal function
- C. promote healthy habits related to healthcare
- D. all of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Health promotion activities encompass a broad range of interventions aimed at enhancing overall well-being. These activities not only focus on reducing the risk of illness but also on maintaining maximal function and promoting healthy habits related to healthcare. Therefore, the correct answer is 'all of the above.' Choices A, B, and C are all integral components of health promotion strategies, emphasizing the multidimensional approach required to support clients in achieving optimal health outcomes.
When assessing Mr. Lee's eye condition, what general information should the nurse seek?
- A. Type of employment.
- B. Burning or itchy sensation in the eyes.
- C. Position of the eyelids.
- D. Existence of floaters.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When assessing a patient's eye condition, the nurse should seek general information such as the type of employment, activities, allergies, medications, lenses, and protective devices used. This information helps in understanding potential exposures to irritants and risks related to activities. While the presence of burning or itchy sensation in the eyes, position of the eyelids, and existence of floaters are important aspects to assess during a focused eye examination, during the initial assessment, the type of employment is more relevant for understanding possible environmental factors affecting eye health.
While assisting with data collection regarding the neurological system, the nurse asks the client to puff out both cheeks. Which cranial nerve is the nurse assessing?
- A. Vagus
- B. Facial
- C. Abducens
- D. Oculomotor
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Facial. Assessment of cranial nerve VII (facial nerve) involves noting mobility and symmetry as the client performs various facial movements, including puffing out the cheeks. Cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) and cranial nerve X (vagus nerve) are tested together for different functions. The abducens, oculomotor, and trochlear nerves are assessed together for eye movements and pupil reactions, not cheek puffing.
A nurse is preparing to assess the function of a client's spinal accessory nerve. Which action does the nurse ask the client to take to aid assessment of this nerve?
- A. Smiling
- B. Clenching the teeth
- C. Shrugging the shoulders against the nurse's resistance
- D. Identifying by taste a substance placed on the back of the tongue
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: To assess cranial nerve XI (spinal accessory nerve), the examiner checks the sternomastoid and trapezius muscles for equal size. Equal strength is assessed by asking the client to rotate the head forcibly against resistance applied to the side of the chin and by asking the client to shrug the shoulders against resistance. These movements should feel equally strong on the two sides. The client is asked to smile as a test of the function of cranial nerve VII (facial nerve). The client's ability to clench the teeth is used to assess the motor function of cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve). The client's taste perception is used to assess the sensory function of cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal nerve). Therefore, the correct action to assess the spinal accessory nerve is to ask the client to shrug the shoulders against resistance. The other options are used to assess different cranial nerves, making them incorrect choices.