HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Quizlet

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Quizlet Related

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The unit clerk reports to the charge nurse that a healthcare provider has written several prescriptions that are illegible and it appears the healthcare provider used several unapproved abbreviations in the prescriptions. What actions should the charge nurse take?

  • A. Call the healthcare provider who wrote the prescription
  • B. Attempt to clarify the prescriptions with the pharmacist
  • C. Administer the medications as prescribed
  • D. Ask another healthcare provider for clarification
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the charge nurse to take is to call the healthcare provider who wrote the illegible prescriptions. It is crucial to clarify illegible prescriptions directly with the provider to ensure patient safety and prevent medication errors. Option B, attempting to clarify with the pharmacist, may lead to misinterpretation and is not the recommended first step. Administering the medications as prescribed without clarity can jeopardize patient safety, making option C incorrect. Asking another healthcare provider for clarification (option D) may not be effective as the responsibility lies with the provider who wrote the prescription.

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A client is admitted with a diagnosis of pneumonia and is receiving IV antibiotics. Which assessment finding indicates that the treatment is effective?

  • A. Client reports less chest pain.
  • B. Client's white blood cell count is decreasing.
  • C. Client has a decreased respiratory rate.
  • D. Client has clear breath sounds.
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clear breath sounds indicate that the pneumonia is resolving and the treatment is effective. Breath sounds are often muffled or crackling in pneumonia due to the presence of fluid or inflammation in the lungs. Clear breath sounds suggest that the air is moving freely through the lungs, indicating improvement. Choices A, B, and C are less specific indicators of pneumonia resolution. While less chest pain and a decreasing white blood cell count can be positive signs, they are not as direct in indicating the effectiveness of pneumonia treatment as the presence of clear breath sounds. A decreased respiratory rate could be seen in various conditions and may not solely indicate the resolution of pneumonia.

A client with urticaria due to environmental allergies is taking diphenhydramine. Which complaint should the nurse identify as a side effect of the OTC medication?

  • A. Nausea and indigestion.
  • B. Hypersalivation.
  • C. Eyelid and facial twitching.
  • D. Increased appetite.
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nausea and indigestion. Diphenhydramine, an antihistamine, commonly causes gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and indigestion. This medication can have anticholinergic effects, leading to these symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypersalivation, eyelid and facial twitching, and increased appetite are not typically associated with diphenhydramine use.

The nurse is triaging several children as they present to the emergency room after an accident. Which child requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

  • A. An 11-year-old with a headache, nausea, and projectile vomiting
  • B. A 5-year-old with a broken arm
  • C. A 7-year-old with minor abrasions
  • D. A 9-year-old with a twisted ankle
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Projectile vomiting in a child with a headache could indicate increased intracranial pressure, requiring immediate attention. Choices B, C, and D do not present with symptoms indicating potentially life-threatening conditions that require urgent intervention.

A client with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed prednisone. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

  • A. Increased joint pain
  • B. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours
  • C. Blood glucose level of 150 mg/dl
  • D. Fever of 100.4°F
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours is concerning in a client with rheumatoid arthritis on prednisone as it may indicate fluid retention or worsening heart failure. Increased joint pain, blood glucose level of 150 mg/dl, and fever of 100.4°F are important assessments but do not require immediate intervention compared to the potential severity of rapid weight gain.

The nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

  • A. Serum potassium level
  • B. Hemoglobin level
  • C. White blood cell count
  • D. Serum calcium level
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum potassium level. When a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving erythropoietin therapy, the nurse should closely monitor the serum potassium level. Erythropoietin therapy can stimulate red blood cell production, leading to an increased demand for potassium. This increases the risk of hyperkalemia, making it crucial to monitor potassium levels closely. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because erythropoietin therapy primarily affects red blood cell production, not hemoglobin, white blood cell count, or serum calcium levels.

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