The U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration:
- A. Registers manufacturers and prescribers of controlled substances
- B. Regulates NP prescribing at the state level
- C. Sanctions providers who prescribe drugs off-label
- D. Provides prescribers with a number they can use for insurance billing
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is correct because the DEA registers those handling controlled substances, issuing numbers for tracking and prescribing, its primary role. Choice B is incorrect as state boards, not the DEA, regulate NP prescribing. Choice C is wrong because off-label prescribing isn't DEA-regulated. Choice D is incorrect since the DEA number is for controlled substances, not insurance billing.
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Passive monitoring of drug effectiveness includes:
- A. Therapeutic drug levels
- B. Adding or subtracting medications from the treatment regimen
- C. Ongoing provider visits
- D. Instructing the patient to report if the drug is not effective
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Choice D is correct because passive monitoring relies on patient feedback, like reporting ineffectiveness, rather than active measures like lab tests. Choice A is incorrect as therapeutic levels are active monitoring. Choice B is wrong because adjusting medications is an intervention, not monitoring. Choice C is incorrect since provider visits are active engagement, not passive.
Risks associated with polypharmacy include:
- A. Increased adverse drug reactions
- B. Drug-drug interactions
- C. Nonadherence
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Choice D is correct because polypharmacy raises ADR risk (more drugs, more side effects), interactions (competing metabolism), and nonadherence (complex regimens), per geriatric studies. Choice A is incorrect alone as it's one risk. Choice B is wrong by itself because interactions are just part. Choice C is incorrect solo since nonadherence is only one issue.
A patient is taking drug A and drug B. The primary care NP notes increased effects of drug B. The NP should suspect that in this case drug A is a cytochrome P450 (CYP450) enzyme:
- A. inhibitor.
- B. substrate.
- C. inducer.
- D. metabolizer.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a CYP450 inhibitor (drug A) reduces metabolism of drug B, increasing its effects. Choice B is incorrect as a substrate is acted upon, not inhibiting. Choice C is wrong since an inducer increases metabolism, reducing effects. Choice D is inaccurate as 'metabolizer' isn’t a CYP450 role.
Drugs that should be avoided in children include:
- A. Acetaminophen
- B. Aspirin
- C. Amoxicillin
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is correct because aspirin is avoided in children under 16 due to its association with Reye's syndrome, a rare but serious liver and brain condition, per AAP recommendations. Choice A is incorrect as acetaminophen is safe and commonly used. Choice C is wrong because amoxicillin is a standard pediatric antibiotic with a good safety profile. Choice D is incorrect since only aspirin fits the avoidance criterion.
Schedule II drugs are characterized by:
- A. High potential for abuse
- B. Low potential for abuse
- C. No accepted medical use
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is correct because Schedule II drugs (e.g., oxycodone) have a high abuse potential with accepted medical use, per DEA rules. Choice B is incorrect as low potential is Schedule IV/V. Choice C is wrong because no medical use is Schedule I. Choice D is incorrect since only A applies.