Nokea
The women’s health nurse is caring for a 30-year-old client who wants to use the ethinyl estradiol and norelgestromin patch for contraception. Regarding this method of birth control, which finding should be most concerning to the nurse?
- A. Client reports heavy menstrual cycles
- B. History of breast cancer in maternal aunt
- C. History of deep venous thrombosis
- D. Weight is 186 lb (84.4 kg) and BMI is 31.0 kg/m^2
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Deep venous thrombosis is a contraindication for estrogen-containing contraceptives like the patch due to increased clotting risk. Heavy menses, family history of breast cancer, and obesity are less critical.
You may also like to solve these questions
The nurse is talking with a client who has human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Which of the following statements by the client would indicate a correct understanding of the condition? Select all that apply.
- A. I should receive the influenza vaccine every year
- B. I will ask my roommate to clean the cat litter box for me
- C. I should ask for my steak to be cooked thoroughly with no pink inside
- D. I can eat the raw vegetables I grew in my garden if my HIV viral load is undetectable
- E. I will use bottled water when brushing my teeth if I travel to an area with poor sanitation
Correct Answer: A,B,C,E
Rationale: Flu vaccine, avoiding cat litter (toxoplasmosis risk), thorough cooking, and bottled water in unsanitary areas reduce infection risk in HIV. Raw vegetables pose a risk, even with undetectable viral load.
The nurse is caring for a client who has subclavian central venous access. Which nursing intervention is most important to prevent the spread of infection to this client?
- A. Frequent hand hygiene
- B. No artificial nails
- C. Use of chlorhexidine bath wipes
- D. Wearing personal protective equipment
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Frequent hand hygiene is the most effective intervention to prevent infection in central venous access, reducing pathogen transmission. No artificial nails and chlorhexidine wipes are supportive, but hand hygiene is primary. PPE is situational.
A nurse observes a family member administer a rectal suppository by having the client lie on the left side for the administration. The family member pushed the suppository until the finger went up to the second knuckle. After 10 minutes the client was told by the family member to turn to the right side and the client did this. What is the appropriate comment for the nurse to make?
- A. Why don't we now have the client turn back to the left side.
- B. That was done correctly. Did you have any problems with the insertion?
- C. Let's check to see if the suppository is in far enough.
- D. Did you feel any stool in the intestinal tract?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Left side-lying position is the optimal position for the client receiving rectal medications. Due to the position of the descending colon, left side-lying allows the medication to be inserted and move along the natural curve of the intestine and facilitates retention of the medication.
For a 6 year-old child hospitalized with moderate edema and mild hypertension associated with acute glomerulonephritis (AGN), which one of the following nursing interventions would be appropriate?
- A. Institute seizure precautions
- B. Weigh the child twice per shift
- C. Encourage the child to eat protein-rich foods
- D. Relieve boredom through physical activity
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Institute seizure precautions. The severity of AGN is unpredictable, and complications like seizures may occur due to hypertension.
A diabetic client asks the nurse why she should use a diaphragm as a method of contraception instead of birth control pills. The best explanation for the use of a diaphragm is:
- A. A diaphragm will best prevent pregnancy because oral contraceptives are rendered ineffective by increased glucose levels.
- B. A diaphragm is a noninvasive method of contraception that will not alter the blood glucose levels.
- C. A diaphragm will provide intrauterine contraception by preventing implantation of the embryo.
- D. A diaphragm is a noninvasive method of contraception that prevents the egg from being released from the ovary.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A diaphragm does not affect blood glucose, unlike oral contraceptives, which can alter glycemic control. Oral contraceptives are not ineffective due to glucose levels, diaphragms do not prevent implantation or ovulation, and they are not intrauterine.