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There are no other abnormal findings. This suggests that Mr. Thornton
- A. Is having anterior wall ischemia
- B. Is having an anterior wall infarction
- C. Has a history of anterior wall NSTEMI
- D. Has a history of anterior wall STEMI
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the absence of any other abnormal findings suggests that Mr. Thornton is currently experiencing an anterior wall infarction. This is indicated by the localized area of myocardial necrosis due to prolonged ischemia. Option A is incorrect because ischemia would typically present with reversible changes rather than necrosis. Option C is incorrect as NSTEMI would show some abnormal findings. Option D is incorrect as STEMI would show more significant ECG changes and enzyme elevation. In summary, the absence of other abnormalities points towards an acute event like an anterior wall infarction.
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Greatly reduced eliminations and red rosy appearance of face are among the features of
- A. Hypothermia neonatorum
- B. Hypoglycemia neonatorum
- C. Hyperthermia neonatorum
- D. Hypocalcemia neonatorum
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Certainly! The correct answer is C: Hyperthermia neonatorum. Greatly reduced eliminations and a red rosy appearance of the face are indicative of hyperthermia, which is an elevated body temperature. This condition can lead to dehydration and other complications.
A: Hypothermia neonatorum is characterized by low body temperature, not elevated.
B: Hypoglycemia neonatorum refers to low blood sugar levels, not related to the symptoms mentioned.
D: Hypocalcemia neonatorum is a deficiency of calcium in the blood, not associated with the given features.
In summary, hyperthermia neonatorum is the correct answer due to the specific symptoms presented, while the other choices do not align with the described features.
The AGACNP is treating a patient with ascites. After a regimen of 200 mg of spironolactone daily, the patient demonstrates a weight loss of 0.75 kgday. The best approach to this patients management is to
- A. Continue the current regimen
- B. D/C the spironolactone and begin a loop diuretic
- C. Add a loop diuretic to the spironolactone
- D. Proceed to large-volume paracentesis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Continue the current regimen. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic commonly used to treat ascites. The weight loss of 0.75 kg/day indicates that the current regimen is effective. Continuing the regimen is appropriate to avoid electrolyte imbalances. Discontinuing spironolactone (Choice B) can lead to rebound edema. Adding a loop diuretic (Choice C) may increase the risk of electrolyte disturbances. Large-volume paracentesis (Choice D) is reserved for cases of refractory ascites.
The type of cord prolapse characterized by presence of the fetal umbilical cord alongside the presenting part is
- A. Occult umbilical cord prolapse
- B. Overt umbilical cord prolapse
- C. Funic cord prolapse
- D. Complete cord prolapse
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Funic cord prolapse. Funic cord prolapse is characterized by the fetal umbilical cord being alongside the presenting part. This type of cord prolapse is a more specific term used to describe the exact position of the cord in relation to the presenting part.
The other choices are incorrect because:
- A: Occult umbilical cord prolapse refers to a hidden or concealed cord prolapse, where the cord is not visible externally.
- B: Overt umbilical cord prolapse is when the cord is visible externally before the presenting part.
- D: Complete cord prolapse implies that the entire cord has descended through the cervix before the presenting part, not just alongside it.
Therefore, the correct choice is C as it accurately describes the specific positioning of the umbilical cord in relation to the presenting part during cord prolapse.
The commonest causative organism of pyelonephritis is
- A. Streptococcus faecalis
- B. Proteus vulgaris
- C. Staphylococcus pyogene
- D. Escherichia coli
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Escherichia coli. E. coli is the most common causative organism of pyelonephritis due to its prevalence in the gastrointestinal tract. It has specific virulence factors that enable it to ascend the urinary tract and cause infection. Streptococcus faecalis, Proteus vulgaris, and Staphylococcus pyogene are less commonly associated with pyelonephritis compared to E. coli.
When evaluating a patient with acute pancreatitis, which of the following physical or diagnostic findings is an ominous finding that indicates a seriously illpotentially moribund patient?
- A. Severe epigastric pain with radiation to the back
- B. Abdominal guarding and rigidity
- C. Grey Turner sign
- D. Obturator sign
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Obturator sign. This finding indicates irritation of the peritoneum and is associated with a ruptured appendix, not acute pancreatitis. A: Severe epigastric pain with radiation to the back is a common presentation of acute pancreatitis, but not necessarily indicative of a seriously ill patient. B: Abdominal guarding and rigidity may suggest peritonitis but are not specific to acute pancreatitis. C: Grey Turner sign, bruising of the flanks, is associated with severe pancreatitis but does not necessarily indicate a seriously ill patient.