Nokea
There have been several clients recently who have fallen in the long-term care facility. The nurse would like to reduce the number of falls. Which action is likely to do the most to help prevent falls?
- A. Ask the nursing assistants to watch the clients more closely.
- B. Restrain clients who cannot walk independently.
- C. Provide call bells so the clients can carry with them when they walk.
- D. Keep beds in the lowest position unless the nurse is performing care for the client.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Low bed height minimizes fall injury risk, a key prevention strategy. Closer watching, restraints, or call bells are less effective or restrictive.
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A nurse is performing a dressing change for a hospitalized client with an infected surgical incision. Which actions should the nurse take?
- A. Have the client remove the existing dressing while the nurse prepares sterile supplies
- B. Wear clean gloves for removal and application of a new dressing
- C. Wear clean gloves to remove the existing dressing, changing to sterile gloves to apply the new dressing
- D. Wear sterile gloves, gown, and goggles to remove the soiled existing dressing
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Clean gloves for removing soiled dressings prevent contamination, while sterile gloves for applying the new dressing maintain a sterile field. Full PPE is excessive for removal, and clean gloves for application risk infection.
A client visiting a family planning clinic is suspected of having an STD. The most diagnostic test for all stages of treponema pallidum (syphilis) is the:
- A. Venereal Disease Research Lab (VDRL)
- B. Rapid plasma reagin (RPR)
- C. Florescent treponemal antibody (FTA-Abs)
- D. Thayer-Martin culture (TMC)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The FTA-Abs test is the most specific and diagnostic for all stages of syphilis. VDRL and RPR are non-treponemal tests that can have false positives, so A and B are incorrect. Thayer-Martin culture is used for gonorrhea, so D is incorrect.
The nurse is assessing a client with delayed wound healing. Which of the following risk factors is most important in this situation?
- A. Glucose level of 120
- B. History of myocardial infarction
- C. Long term steroid usage
- D. Diet high in carbohydrates
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Long term steroid usage. Steroids delay wound healing by impairing the inflammatory response.
The nurse is assessing a client who had a left arm cast applied four hours ago. Which finding indicates that the client may have circulatory impairment?
- A. The client's nail beds blanch when the nurse applies pressure; color returns in two seconds.
- B. The client's fingers on the left hand are cold to the touch.
- C. The client complains of pain at the fracture site.
- D. The client is unable to move the fingers on the left hand.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cold fingers suggest impaired circulation in the casted arm, indicating potential compartment syndrome or vascular compromise, requiring immediate evaluation. Normal blanching, fracture pain, or immobility are less specific.
A diabetic client asks the nurse why she should use a diaphragm as a method of contraception instead of birth control pills. The best explanation for the use of a diaphragm is:
- A. A diaphragm will best prevent pregnancy because oral contraceptives are rendered ineffective by increased glucose levels.
- B. A diaphragm is a noninvasive method of contraception that will not alter the blood glucose levels.
- C. A diaphragm will provide intrauterine contraception by preventing implantation of the embryo.
- D. A diaphragm is a noninvasive method of contraception that prevents the egg from being released from the ovary.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A diaphragm does not affect blood glucose, unlike oral contraceptives, which can alter glycemic control. Oral contraceptives are not ineffective due to glucose levels, diaphragms do not prevent implantation or ovulation, and they are not intrauterine.