Nokea
There seems to be a positive correlation between type 2 diabetes mellitus and:
- A. Hypotension
- B. Obesity
- C. Kidney dysfunction
- D. Sex
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: There is a well-established positive correlation between type 2 diabetes mellitus and obesity. Obesity is a major risk factor for developing type 2 diabetes due to excess body fat leading to increased insulin resistance. As fat accumulates in the body, especially around the abdomen, the cells become less responsive to insulin, causing blood sugar levels to rise. This can ultimately lead to the development of type 2 diabetes. Managing obesity through lifestyle modifications such as healthy eating and regular exercise is crucial in preventing and managing type 2 diabetes.
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Achild has a chronic cough, no retractions but diffuse wheezing during the expiratory phase of respiration. This suggests which of the following?
- A. Asthma
- B. Pneumonia
- C. Croup
- D. Foreign body aspiration
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presence of a chronic cough, along with diffuse wheezing during the expiratory phase of respiration, suggests asthma. Asthma is a chronic condition characterized by inflammation and narrowing of the airways, causing symptoms such as coughing, wheezing, and difficulty breathing. The wheezing sound typically occurs during expiration due to air trapping in the narrowed airways. In this case, the absence of retractions (which could indicate increased work of breathing) and the nature of the wheezing pattern are more consistent with asthma rather than other conditions such as pneumonia, croup, or foreign body aspiration. While these other conditions may also present with respiratory symptoms, the specific combination of chronic cough and expiratory wheezing is most indicative of asthma in this scenario.
The nurse is developing a plan of care for marrow suppression, the major dose-limiting adverse reaction to floxuridine (FUDR). How long after drug administration does bone marrow suppression become noticeable?
- A. 24 hours
- B. 7 to 14 days
- C. 2 to 4 days
- D. 21 to 28 days
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Marrow suppression is the major dose-limiting adverse reaction to floxuridine (FUDR). It typically becomes noticeable 2 to 4 days after drug administration. Floxuridine acts by interfering with DNA replication and is most toxic to rapidly dividing cells, such as those in the bone marrow. As a result, bone marrow suppression leading to decreased production of blood cells can occur relatively quickly after the administration of floxuridine. Monitoring for bone marrow suppression is essential in patients receiving this medication to ensure timely intervention and prevention of complications such as anemia, thrombocytopenia, and leukopenia.
A 12-year-old male adolescent, recently diagnosed with Hodgkin lymphoma, shows left cervical and supraclavicular lymph node involvement and drenching night sweats. Based on Ann Arbor Classification, the patient is classified as
- A. stage IA
- B. stage IB
- C. stage IIA
- D. stage IIB
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Involvement of two lymph node regions above the diaphragm with systemic symptoms corresponds to stage IIB.
A patient is admitted with a 2-month history of fatigue, SOB, pallor, and dizziness. The patient is diagnosed with idiopathic autoimmune haemolytic anemia. On reviewing the laboratory results, the nurse notes which of the following that confirms this diagnosis?
- A. RBC fragments
- B. Microcytic, hypochromic RBCs
- C. Macrocytic, normochromic RBCs
- D. Hemoglobin molecules
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In patients with idiopathic autoimmune hemolytic anemia, the immune system mistakenly targets and destroys its own red blood cells (RBCs). When the red blood cells are destroyed, they can break apart, leading to the presence of fragmented RBCs, also known as schistocytes or red cell fragments, in the peripheral blood. The presence of RBC fragments is a characteristic finding in this type of hemolytic anemia and helps confirm the diagnosis.
A client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is prescribed zidovudine (azidothymidine, AZT [retrovir]), 200mg PO every 4 hours. When teaching the client about this drug, the nurse should provide which instruction?
- A. "Take zidovudine with meals."
- B. "Take zidovudine on an empty stomach."
- C. "Take zidovudine every 4 hours around the clock."
- D. "Take over-the-counter(OTC) drugs to treat minor adverse reactions."
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Zidovudine (AZT) is an antiretroviral drug used to treat HIV infection, including in AIDS patients. It is important to follow the prescribed dosing schedule to maintain consistent drug levels in the body and effectively control the HIV virus. Taking zidovudine every 4 hours around the clock helps ensure the medication's therapeutic effects are maintained throughout the day. It is crucial for the client to adhere to the prescribed dosing regimen to prevent the development of drug resistance and to achieve the best treatment outcomes. Taking zidovudine with meals, on an empty stomach, or taking over-the-counter drugs for minor adverse reactions are not the correct instructions related to the dosing schedule of zidovudine.