Clinical Pharmacology of Cardiovascular Drugs PPT

Clinical Pharmacology of Cardiovascular Drugs PPT Related

Review Clinical Pharmacology of Cardiovascular Drugs PPT related questions and content

This drug is a potassium channel activator:

  • A. Nifedipine
  • B. Saralasin
  • C. Diazoxide
  • D. Losartan
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. Diazoxide is a potassium channel activator that works by opening ATP-sensitive potassium channels in smooth muscle cells.
2. This action leads to hyperpolarization of the cell membrane, resulting in relaxation of vascular smooth muscle.
3. This vasodilatory effect is beneficial in conditions like hypertension and hypoglycemia.
4. Nifedipine (A) is a calcium channel blocker, Saralasin (B) is an angiotensin II receptor antagonist, and Losartan (D) is an angiotensin II receptor blocker.
Summary:
- Nifedipine does not activate potassium channels.
- Saralasin and Losartan do not have a direct effect on potassium channels.
- Diazoxide is the correct choice as it specifically activates potassium channels to induce vasodilation.

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The mechanism of haloperidol antipsychotic action is:

  • A. Blocking D2 receptors
  • B. Central alpha-adrenergic blocking
  • C. Inhibition of norepinephrine uptake mechanisms
  • D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blocking D2 receptors. Haloperidol is a typical antipsychotic that primarily works by blocking dopamine D2 receptors in the brain, leading to a reduction in dopamine activity and alleviating psychotic symptoms. Choices B and C are incorrect as haloperidol does not primarily act by central alpha-adrenergic blocking or inhibition of norepinephrine uptake mechanisms. Choice D, "All of the above," is incorrect as haloperidol's main mechanism of action is through D2 receptor blockade, not through all the mechanisms listed.

A client is taking chlordiazepoxide (Librium) for generalized anxiety disorder symptoms. In which situation should a nurse recognize that this client is at greatest risk for drug overdose?

  • A. When the client has a knowledge deficit related to the effects of the drug
  • B. When the client combines the drug with alcohol
  • C. When the client takes the drug on an empty stomach
  • D. When the client fails to follow dietary restrictions
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, when the client combines the drug with alcohol. Chlordiazepoxide is a benzodiazepine used to treat anxiety disorders by enhancing the effects of GABA in the brain. Combining it with alcohol can potentiate the sedative effects, leading to respiratory depression, coma, or even death. Alcohol and benzodiazepines both depress the central nervous system, increasing the risk of overdose. Choices A, C, and D do not directly increase the risk of drug overdose with chlordiazepoxide. A knowledge deficit may impact adherence but doesn't directly lead to overdose. Taking the drug on an empty stomach or failing to follow dietary restrictions may alter absorption or metabolism but won't significantly increase overdose risk.

The action of insulin is potentiated by:

  • A. Sulphonylureas
  • B. Glucagon
  • C. Biguanides
  • D. None of the above
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Biguanides. Biguanides, such as metformin, potentiate the action of insulin by improving insulin sensitivity in tissues, reducing hepatic glucose production, and enhancing peripheral glucose uptake. Sulphonylureas (A) stimulate insulin secretion, glucagon (B) increases blood glucose levels, and D is incorrect as biguanides do potentiate insulin action.

Following potassium sparing diuretic is a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist

  • A. Amiloride
  • B. Triamterene
  • C. Spironolactone
  • D. All of the above
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Spironolactone specifically blocks aldosterone receptors, unlike amiloride and triamterene which act on sodium channels.

A medical student is involved in a summer research project involving the administration of subtherapeutic doses of morphine to rats. Cardiovascular effects and parameters are determined approximately 30 min after administration. Which of the following effects is likely?

  • A. Bradycardia
  • B. Hypertension
  • C. Hypotension
  • D. No change in heart rate
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Morphine causes histamine release and vagal stimulation, leading to bradycardia at subtherapeutic doses.