Nokea
This is a drug of choice for acute treatment of ventricular tachycardias:
- A. Flecainide
- B. Sotalol
- C. Lidocaine
- D. Verapamil
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Lidocaine is the drug of choice for acute treatment of ventricular tachycardias due to its fast onset of action and minimal negative inotropic effects. It works by stabilizing cell membranes and reducing automaticity in the ventricular tissue. Flecainide (A) and Sotalol (B) are contraindicated in ventricular tachycardias due to their potential to worsen arrhythmias. Verapamil (D) is a calcium channel blocker and is not effective for treating ventricular tachycardias.
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Which of the following drugs most likely caused the adverse effect of dizziness and fainting when standing up rapidly?
- A. Propranolol
- B. Minoxidil
- C. Hydralazine
- D. Prazosin
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Prazosin. Prazosin is an alpha-1 adrenergic blocker that can cause orthostatic hypotension, leading to dizziness and fainting when standing up rapidly. It works by dilating blood vessels, which can cause a sudden drop in blood pressure upon standing. Propranolol (A) is a beta-blocker and can cause dizziness but is less likely to cause orthostatic hypotension. Minoxidil (B) is a vasodilator that can cause rapid heart rate but not typically dizziness upon standing. Hydralazine (C) is a direct vasodilator that can cause reflex tachycardia but is less likely to cause orthostatic hypotension compared to alpha-1 blockers like Prazosin.
Tick the group of antibiotics having an antimalarial effect:
- A. Aminoglycosides
- B. Tetracyclins
- C. Carbapenems
- D. Penicillins
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Tetracyclins are known to have antimalarial properties by inhibiting protein synthesis in Plasmodium species.
Step 2: Aminoglycosides (choice A) primarily target bacteria, not parasites like malaria.
Step 3: Carbapenems (choice C) and Penicillins (choice D) are both beta-lactam antibiotics that have no significant antimalarial effects.
Summary: Tetracyclins are the correct choice as they directly target malaria parasites, while the other options do not possess antimalarial properties.
Which statement represents the most appropriate instructions for a patient with a past suicide attempt who is prescribed amitriptyline (Elavil), 150 mg PO at bedtime?
- A. “You will need to pick up your 7-day supply of medication at the pharmacy each week.”
- B. “Your prescription will provide you with a 6-month supply to save you money and time.”
- C. “I’m going to strongly suggest that your spouse dispense this medication to you each evening.”
- D. “Stop by the clinic each evening for your medication so your emotional state of mind can be assessed.”
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because picking up a 7-day supply at the pharmacy each week ensures regular monitoring and compliance. This allows healthcare professionals to assess the patient's response to the medication and monitor for any potential side effects or worsening of symptoms. The other choices are incorrect because B does not address the need for regular monitoring, C may not be feasible for all patients and may compromise patient autonomy, and D is impractical and does not provide consistent access to medication.
A client with chronic schizophrenia has had a stroke involving the hippocampus. The client will be discharged on low doses of haloperidol. The nurse who must provide medication teaching will need to adjust the teaching plan to account for client problems with:
- A. Memory
- B. Expressive aphasia
- C. Emotional control
- D. Poor balance and coordination
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Memory. The hippocampus is crucial for memory formation and retrieval. Since the client's hippocampus is affected by the stroke, they may experience memory deficits. Teaching about medication administration needs to be adjusted to accommodate the client's impaired memory to ensure they understand and remember the instructions.
Summary:
- Choice A is correct because the hippocampus is involved in memory.
- Choice B (Expressive aphasia) is incorrect as it pertains to language expression, not memory.
- Choice C (Emotional control) is incorrect as it is not directly related to hippocampal function.
- Choice D (Poor balance and coordination) is incorrect as it is not typically associated with hippocampal damage.
Inhibition of thromboxane synthesis by aspirin in platelets lasts for 5-7 days because
- A. Aspirin persists in the body for 5-7 days
- B. Aspirin induced depletion of arachidonic acid lasts 5-7 days
- C. Regeneration of aspirin inhibited cyclooxygenase takes 5-7 days
- D. Platelets cannot generate fresh thromboxane synthetase and their turnover time is 5-7 days
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Aspirin irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase (COX-1) in platelets, and since platelets lack nuclei, they cannot synthesize new COX-1. The effect lasts until new platelets are produced, which takes 5-7 days, corresponding to their turnover time.