Nokea
This region of the large intestine has a simple columnar epithelium in its tunica mucosa, smooth muscle in its tunica muscularis, and epiploic appendages attach to its outer surface. This region is called the
- A. cecum.
- B. colon.
- C. rectum.
- D. anal canal.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: colon. The colon is characterized by having a simple columnar epithelium in its tunica mucosa, smooth muscle in its tunica muscularis, and epiploic appendages attached to its outer surface. The cecum (A) is a pouch-like structure at the beginning of the large intestine. The rectum (C) is the final segment of the large intestine before the anal canal (D). The anal canal is lined by stratified squamous epithelium, not simple columnar epithelium like the colon.
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A client with an ileostomy wants to know why to avoid fibrous vegetables. What should be the nurse's response?
- A. They cause gas formation.
- B. They cause stomal obstruction.
- C. They are difficult to digest.
- D. They increase the risk of diarrhea.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because fibrous vegetables can potentially cause stomal obstruction in clients with an ileostomy due to their indigestible nature, leading to blockages in the stoma. This can result in severe complications and require medical intervention. Gas formation (choice A) is a common issue with high-fiber foods but is not specific to fibrous vegetables. Fibrous vegetables are not necessarily difficult to digest (choice C) for most individuals, although they may be harder for those with reduced gut function. While fibrous vegetables may contribute to loose stools, they do not directly increase the risk of diarrhea (choice D) in the same way they can cause stomal obstruction.
A patient asks the nurse about taking phentermine and topiramate (Qsymia) for weight loss. To avoid side effects
- A. it is important for the nurse to determine whether the patient has a history of
- B. glaucoma.
- C. hypertension.
- D. valvular heart disease.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it is essential to determine if the patient has a history of certain conditions before prescribing Qsymia. This medication can worsen glaucoma (not just a history of it) making option B incorrect. Option C is incorrect because Qsymia can actually help manage hypertension. Option D is incorrect because while valvular heart disease can be a concern, it is not the primary factor to consider before prescribing this medication.
Concerning deglutition (swallowing):
- A. Pharyngeal phase of swallowing is voluntary.
- B. Normally the lower esophageal sphincter (LES) is open.
- C. Dysphagia is caused by a lesion in the swallowing reflex.
- D. In the esophageal stage of swallowing, if the bolus is liquid it travels by peristalsis.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because dysphagia, which is difficulty swallowing, can be caused by various factors such as neurological disorders affecting the swallowing reflex or physical obstructions in the esophagus. This is a key point in understanding the causes of swallowing difficulties.
Choice A is incorrect because the pharyngeal phase of swallowing is actually involuntary, not voluntary. Choice B is incorrect as the lower esophageal sphincter (LES) is normally closed to prevent acid reflux and only opens during swallowing. Choice D is incorrect because in the esophageal stage of swallowing, both liquid and solid boluses travel through the esophagus by peristalsis, not just liquid boluses.
A 68-yr-old male patient with a stroke is unconscious and unresponsive to stimuli. After learning
- A. , what should the nurse plan to assess more frequently than is routine?
- B. Apical pulse
- C. Bowel sounds
- D. Breath sounds
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Breath sounds. In an unconscious stroke patient, airway patency and adequate oxygenation are critical. Assessing breath sounds more frequently than routine helps monitor for respiratory distress, such as aspiration or pneumonia. Apical pulse (B) may be important but not as immediately life-threatening as respiratory status. Bowel sounds (C) may indicate bowel function but are not as urgent as assessing breathing. By prioritizing breath sounds, the nurse can ensure timely intervention in case of respiratory compromise.
A sudden decrease in blood volume would be met by increases in epinephrine, antidiuretic hormone (vasopressin) and angiotensin II. What EFFECT would the increase in these three hormones ALL HAVE IN COMMON?
- A. increased heart rate
- B. increased fluid retention and blood volume
- C. increased PNS activity
- D. vasoconstriction and increased total peripheral resistance
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: vasoconstriction and increased total peripheral resistance. Epinephrine, antidiuretic hormone, and angiotensin II all act to increase vasoconstriction, leading to an increase in total peripheral resistance. This response is crucial during a sudden decrease in blood volume to maintain blood pressure and ensure adequate perfusion to vital organs.
Choice A (increased heart rate) is not correct because while epinephrine can increase heart rate, antidiuretic hormone and angiotensin II do not directly affect heart rate.
Choice B (increased fluid retention and blood volume) is not correct because antidiuretic hormone and angiotensin II can increase fluid retention, but epinephrine does not have this effect.
Choice C (increased PNS activity) is not correct because these hormones actually stimulate the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) leading to vasoconstriction and increased blood pressure, not the parasympath