Nokea
Thrombolytic therapy is frequently used in the treatment of suspected stroke. Which of the following is a significant complication associated with thrombolytic therapy?
- A. Air embolism.
- B. Cerebral hemorrhage.
- C. Expansion of the clot.
- D. Resolution of the clot.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cerebral hemorrhage is a significant complication associated with thrombolytic therapy in stroke treatment. Thrombolytic therapy aims to dissolve clots, but it increases the risk of bleeding, including cerebral hemorrhage. This risk is especially high when the therapy is administered quickly after a stroke, sometimes before confirming the type of stroke. Air embolism (Choice A) is not a common complication of thrombolytic therapy. Expansion of the clot (Choice C) and resolution of the clot (Choice D) are not expected outcomes of thrombolytic therapy; the therapy is specifically used to dissolve clots, not to expand or resolve them.
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During an adolescent examination, the nurse asks a 13-year-old female to bend forward at the waist with arms hanging freely. Which of the following assessments is the nurse most likely conducting?
- A. Spinal flexibility
- B. Leg length disparity
- C. Hypostatic blood pressure
- D. Scoliosis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is scoliosis. During the assessment for scoliosis, the nurse asks the adolescent to bend forward at the waist with arms hanging freely to observe for any lateral deviation of the spine, uneven rib levels, or asymmetry. This assessment is a routine part of an adolescent examination, especially in females, as scoliosis is more common in this population. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Spinal flexibility is usually assessed through different maneuvers, leg length disparity is evaluated by measuring the length of the legs, and hypostatic blood pressure refers to a decrease in blood pressure due to immobility.
A client is admitted to a nursing unit with a remittent fever. Which statement best describes this pattern of fever?
- A. A fever that spikes and then lowers without returning to normal
- B. A fever that lasts 2 days followed by normal temperature for 2 days, followed by fever again
- C. A fever that lasts 2 days followed by normal temperature for 12 hours, followed by fever again
- D. A persistent fever that has lasted over 24 hours
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A remittent fever is characterized by temperature fluctuations where the fever spikes and then lowers but does not return to normal temperature. Option A best describes this pattern of fever. Option B describes a pattern of fever known as a biphasic fever, where the fever alternates between days of fever and normal temperature. Option C describes a pattern of fever that is more indicative of an intermittent fever, where the fever lasts for a specific duration followed by an interval of normal temperature. Option D does not accurately describe a remittent fever, as it suggests a persistent fever that has lasted over 24 hours, which is not specific to the remittent pattern.
A nurse is assigned to care for a deaf client. During her lunch hour, she visits the hospital library and reads more about deaf culture in order to better provide appropriate care for her client. This action is an example of:
- A. Cultural knowledge
- B. Cultural noise
- C. Cultural diversity
- D. Cultural divide
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cultural knowledge involves seeking information and educating oneself about different cultural groups. In this scenario, the nurse is demonstrating cultural knowledge by learning more about deaf culture to improve the care provided to the deaf client. This proactive approach helps in understanding the client's background, beliefs, and communication preferences, leading to better outcomes. 'Cultural noise' and 'Cultural divide' are incorrect as they do not reflect the nurse's positive action of seeking knowledge to enhance care. 'Cultural diversity' is also incorrect as it does not accurately describe the nurse's specific action of acquiring knowledge about a particular culture.
A patient in the cardiac unit is concerned about the risk factors associated with atherosclerosis. Which of the following are hereditary risk factors for developing atherosclerosis?
- A. Family history of heart disease
- B. Overweight
- C. Smoking
- D. Age
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A family history of heart disease is an inherited risk factor for developing atherosclerosis. This factor is not modifiable through lifestyle changes. Studies have shown that having a first-degree relative with heart disease significantly increases the individual's risk of developing atherosclerosis. Overweight, smoking, and age are not hereditary risk factors for atherosclerosis. Overweight and smoking are lifestyle-related risk factors, while age is a non-modifiable risk factor that increases with time but is not directly inherited.
A patient who has been diagnosed with vasospastic disorder (Raynaud's disease) complains of cold and stiffness in the fingers. Which of the following descriptions is most likely to fit the patient?
- A. An adolescent male
- B. An elderly woman
- C. A young woman
- D. An elderly man
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'A young woman.' Raynaud's disease is most common in young women and is often associated with rheumatologic disorders like lupus and rheumatoid arthritis. This disorder involves vasospasm of the arteries, leading to reduced blood flow to the fingers and toes. Typically, Raynaud's affects the fingers, and in some cases, it can affect the toes. Only rarely does it involve other body parts such as the nose, ears, nipples, and lips. Choices B, C, and D are less likely as Raynaud's disease predominantly affects young women, although it can occur in other demographic groups as well.