Tick pirazolone derivative:
- A. Methylsalicylate
- B. Analgin
- C. Paracetamol
- D. Ketoralac
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Analgin. Analgin is a pirazolone derivative, specifically metamizole. It is a non-opioid analgesic and antipyretic medication. Methylsalicylate is a salicylate derivative used as a topical pain reliever. Paracetamol is an analgesic and antipyretic drug but not a pirazolone derivative. Ketorolac is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) but not a pirazolone derivative. Therefore, Analgin is the only choice that fits the criteria of being a pirazolone derivative.
You may also like to solve these questions
The reason of beta-blockers administration for hypertension treatment is:
- A. Peripheral vasodilatation
- B. Diminishing of blood volume
- C. Decreasing of heart work
- D. Depression of vasomotor center
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decreasing of heart work. Beta-blockers reduce blood pressure by decreasing the heart's workload through blocking the effects of adrenaline on the heart, resulting in lowered heart rate and force of contraction. This reduces the amount of blood pumped by the heart, leading to decreased blood pressure. The other choices are incorrect because:
A: Peripheral vasodilatation - Beta-blockers actually cause vasoconstriction, not vasodilatation.
B: Diminishing of blood volume - Beta-blockers do not directly affect blood volume.
D: Depression of vasomotor center - Beta-blockers primarily act on the heart, not the vasomotor center.
Major lipid class present in chylomicrons is
- A. Endogenous triglycerides
- B. Cholesterol esters
- C. Dietary triglycerides
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Chylomicrons primarily transport dietary triglycerides absorbed from the intestine.
Withdrawal of which of the following drugs leads to rebound hypertension:
- A. Prazosin
- B. Hydralazine
- C. Clonidine
- D. Captopril
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Clonidine, a central alpha-2 agonist, causes rebound hypertension on abrupt withdrawal due to sympathetic overactivity.
Which of the following statements refers to 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 (calcitriol):
- A. The combined effect of calcitriol and all other vitamin D metabolites and analogs on both calcium and phosphate makes careful monitoring of the level of these minerals especially important to avoid ectopic calcification
- B. Does not undergo enterohepatic circulation
- C. Toxic to osteoclasts
- D. Bioavailability increases with the administered dose
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale:
A: Correct. Calcitriol regulates calcium and phosphate levels, leading to potential ectopic calcification. Monitoring is crucial.
B: Incorrect. Calcitriol does undergo enterohepatic circulation.
C: Incorrect. Calcitriol is not toxic to osteoclasts; it has a role in bone health.
D: Incorrect. Calcitriol has a complex relationship with bioavailability, affected by several factors.
Characteristics of ephedrine include all of the following EXCEPT:
- A. It acts primarily through the release of stored cathecholamines
- B. It is a mild CNS stimulant
- C. It causes tachyphylaxis with repeated administration
- D. It decreases arterial pressure
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because ephedrine actually increases arterial pressure by stimulating alpha-adrenergic receptors, leading to vasoconstriction. A is incorrect as ephedrine works by directly stimulating adrenergic receptors, not by releasing stored catecholamines. B is correct as ephedrine is indeed a mild CNS stimulant. C is incorrect as tachyphylaxis, or a rapid decrease in response with repeated administration, is not commonly associated with ephedrine.
Nokea