Nokea
To hear a soft murmur or bruit, which of the following may be necessary?
- A. Asking the patient to hold her breath
- B. Asking the patient in the next bed to turn down the TV
- C. Checking your stethoscope for air leaks
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: To hear a soft murmur or bruit clearly, it is important to minimize any background noise or distractions that may interfere with your ability to auscultate effectively. Therefore, asking the patient to hold her breath (choice A) can help reduce noise caused by the patient's respiration. Asking the patient in the next bed to turn down the TV (choice B) can also help eliminate external noise that may disrupt your ability to hear subtle sounds. Checking your stethoscope for air leaks (choice C) is crucial to ensure that you are hearing sounds accurately and not being affected by any equipment issues. By combining these strategies, you can create an optimal environment for listening to soft murmurs or bruits.
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A 23-year-old graduate student comes to your clinic for evaluation of a urethral discharge. As the provider, you need to get a sexual history. Which one of the following questions is inappropriate for eliciting the information?
- A. Are you sexually active?
- B. When was the last time you had intimate physical contact with someone, and did that contact include sexual intercourse?
- C. Do you have sex with men, women, or both?
- D. How many sexual partners have you had in the last 6 months?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: While it is important to ask about recent sexual activity and whether it included sexual intercourse, using the term "intimate physical contact" is not specific enough. This question could potentially lead to misinterpretation or confusion regarding what types of activities are being referred to. It is more appropriate to directly ask about sexual intercourse when obtaining a sexual history. The other options are all appropriate questions to elicit information about the patient's sexual history.
Mrs. LaFarge is a 60-year-old who presents with urinary incontinence. She is unable to get to the bathroom quickly enough when she senses the need to urinate. She has normal mobility. Which of the following is most likely?
- A. Stress incontinence
- B. Urge incontinence
- C. Overflow incontinence
- D. Functional incontinence
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Urge incontinence, also known as overactive bladder, is characterized by a sudden and strong urge to urinate which is difficult to control. In this case, Mrs. LaFarge is unable to get to the bathroom quickly enough when she senses the need to urinate, which indicates a lack of control over the urge to urinate. This is typically caused by involuntary contractions of the bladder muscle. Stress incontinence, on the other hand, is leakage of urine during activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure, such as coughing or exercising. Overflow incontinence is characterized by urinary retention and constant dribbling of urine due to the bladder being unable to empty properly. Functional incontinence occurs when a person has normal bladder control but is unable to reach the bathroom in time due to physical or cognitive impairments. Since Mrs. LaFarge is experiencing a sudden and strong urge to urinate that she cannot
Mr. Jackson is a 50-year-old African-American who has had discomfort between his scrotum and anus. He also has had some fevers and dysuria. Your rectal examination is halted by tenderness anteriorly, but no frank mass is palpable. What is your most likely diagnosis?
- A. Prostate cancer
- B. Colon cancer
- C. Prostatitis
- D. Colonic polyp
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most likely diagnosis in this case is prostatitis. Prostatitis is the inflammation or infection of the prostate gland, which can cause symptoms such as discomfort between the scrotum and anus (perineum), fevers, and dysuria (painful urination). The tenderness anteriorly during rectal examination is consistent with prostatitis as the prostate gland is located in front of the rectum and can be tender to touch when inflamed. Prostate cancer typically presents with symptoms such as urinary frequency, nocturia, hematuria, or bone pain, and is less likely to cause the symptoms described in this scenario. Colon cancer and colonic polyps are less likely as they would not typically cause discomfort in the perineal area or dysuria.
A sudden, painless unilateral vision loss may be caused by which of the following?
- A. Retinal detachment
- B. Corneal ulcer
- C. Acute glaucoma
- D. Uveitis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A sudden, painless unilateral vision loss may be caused by a retinal detachment. Retinal detachment occurs when the retina, which is the light-sensitive tissue lining the back of the eye, pulls away from its normal position. This can lead to visual disturbances, including sudden loss of vision in one eye. Retinal detachment can be a medical emergency and requires prompt evaluation and treatment to prevent permanent vision loss. Other conditions mentioned in the choices, such as corneal ulcer, acute glaucoma, and uveitis, may also cause vision problems but are less likely to present with a sudden and painless unilateral vision loss as a primary symptom.
A 28-year-old married clothing sales clerk comes to your clinic for her annual examination. She requests a refill on her birth control pills. Her only complaint is painless bleeding after intercourse. She denies any other symptoms. Her past medical history consists of two spontaneous vaginal deliveries. Her past six Pap smears have all been normal. She is married and has two children. Her mother is in good health and her father has high blood pressure. On examination you see a young woman appearing healthy and relaxed. Her vital signs are unremarkable and her head, eyes, ears, throat, neck, cardiac, lung, and abdominal examinations are normal. Visualization of the perineum shows no lesions or masses. Speculum examination shows a red mass at the os. On taking a Pap smear the mass bleeds easily. Bimanual examination shows no cervical motion tenderness and both ovaries are palpated and nontender. What is the most likely diagnosis for the abnormality of her cervix?
- A. Carcinoma of the cervix
- B. Mucopurulent cervicitis
- C. Cervical polyp
- D. Retention cyst
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Given the patient's history and presentation, the most likely diagnosis for the abnormality seen on examination is a cervical polyp. Cervical polyps are benign growths that arise from the mucosal surface of the cervix. They are typically red or purple in color and can bleed easily, especially when touched, as in this case with the Pap smear causing bleeding. Cervical polyps are usually asymptomatic but can present with painless bleeding, particularly after intercourse. In this patient, the visualization of a red mass at the os during speculum examination and the finding of bleeding with manipulation support the diagnosis of a cervical polyp. Additionally, the absence of other significant findings on examination and the patient's overall healthy appearance further support this benign diagnosis. Further evaluation with possible removal of the polyp may be warranted for confirmation and to alleviate the bleeding symptoms.