Nokea
To prepare for potential postoperative complications related to the thyroidectomy, which item is necessary to keep at the client's bedside?
- A. Dressing change kit
- B. Tracheostomy tray
- C. Ampule of epinephrine
- D. Mechanical ventilator
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A tracheostomy tray is essential in case of airway obstruction due to swelling or hematoma post-thyroidectomy.
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Before administering this medication, what is essential for the nurse to ask the client?
- A. Do you have trouble swallowing?
- B. Do you keep the child form of medication?
- C. Have you had digestive disorders in the past?
- D. Is there a possibility you could be pregnant?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Propylthiouracil is contraindicated in pregnancy due to potential teratogenic effects.
The client diagnosed with type 1 diabetes is found lying unconscious on the floor of the bathroom. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer 50% dextrose (IVP).
- B. Notify the health-care provider.
- C. Move the client to the ICU.
- D. Check the serum glucose level.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Checking glucose confirms hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia as the cause of unconsciousness, guiding treatment. Dextrose, HCP notification, or ICU transfer follow confirmation.
The client is hospitalized with a tentative diagnosis of Cushing's syndrome. Which laboratory findings should the nurse expect if the diagnosis of Cushing's syndrome is confirmed? Select all that apply.
- A. Hyperglycemia
- B. Eosinophilia
- C. Hypocalcemia
- D. Hypokalemia
- E. Thrombocytopenia
- F. Elevated serum cortisol
Correct Answer: A,D,F
Rationale: Cushing's syndrome causes hyperglycemia, hypokalemia, and elevated serum cortisol due to excessive adrenocortical activity.
The nurse is planning to complete noon assessments for four assigned clients with type 1 DM. All of the clients received subcutaneous insulin aspart at 0800 hours. Place the clients in the order of priority for the nurse's assessment.
- A. The 60-year-old client who is nauseated and has just vomited for the second time
- B. The 45-year-old client who is dyspneic and has chest pressure and new-onset atrial fibrillation
- C. The 75-year-old client with a fingerstick blood glucose level of 300 mg/dL
- D. The 50-year-old client with a fingerstick blood glucose level of 70 mg/dL
Correct Answer: B,A,C,D
Rationale: The 45-year-old client with dyspnea, chest pressure, and atrial fibrillation is at risk for a cardiac event, requiring immediate assessment. The 60-year-old with vomiting is next due to potential hypoglycemia. The 75-year-old with hyperglycemia needs attention but is less urgent. The 50-year-old with normal glucose is last.
The nurse is teaching the client diagnosed with diabetes. Which should the nurse teach to limit the complications of diabetes?
- A. Teach the client to keep the blood glucose under 140 mg/dL.
- B. Demonstrate how to test the urine for ketones.
- C. Instruct the client to apply petroleum jelly between the toes.
- D. Allow the client to eat meals as desired and then take insulin.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Maintaining blood glucose <140 mg/dL prevents complications like neuropathy and retinopathy. Ketone testing is for type 1, petroleum jelly is incorrect, and meal-based insulin is unsafe.