Treatment goals in prescribing should:
- A. Always be curative
- B. Be patient-centered
- C. Be convenient for the provider
- D. Focus on the cost of therapy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Patient-centered goals prioritize individual needs and outcomes, not just cure , provider convenience , or cost alone .
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To reduce potential adverse effects, patients taking a peripherally acting alpha1 antagonist should do all of the following EXCEPT:
- A. Take the dose at bedtime
- B. Sit up slowly and dangle their feet before standing
- C. Monitor their blood pressure and skip a dose if the pressure is less than 120/80
- D. Weigh daily and report weight gain of greater than 2 pounds in one day
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Skipping doses based on blood pressure is not recommended; it risks uncontrolled hypertension.
Please select a correct statement:
- A. The risk of glaucoma and cataract increases with long-term use of steroids
- B. in the case of long term corticosteroid therapy rapid withdrawal increase the risk of hypertonic crisis
- C. Prescribing steroids in the case of transplantation stimulated transplant rejection
- D. In the bone steroids decrease osteoclasts and increase osteoblasts
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Long-term steroid use increases the risk of glaucoma and cataracts due to ocular effects.
The MMR vaccine is not recommended for pregnant women because:
- A. Pregnant women do not build adequate immunity to the vaccine
- B. There is a risk of the pregnant women developing measles encephalopathy
- C. There is a risk of the fetus developing congenital rubella syndrome
- D. Pregnant women can receive the MMR vaccine
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: MMR (live vaccine) risks fetal congenital rubella syndrome ; pregnancy contraindicates it, not immunity or encephalopathy .
Which of the following drug shows foetal hydantoin syndrome?
- A. Alcohol
- B. Phenytoin
- C. Ethosuximide
- D. Phenobarbitone
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Phenytoin is associated with fetal hydantoin syndrome, characterized by craniofacial abnormalities and growth deficits, due to its teratogenic effects during pregnancy.
A patient presents to the emergency department with a drug level of 50 units/mL. The half-life of this drug is 1 hour. With this drug, concentrations above 25 units/mL are considered toxic and no more drug is given. How long will it take for the blood level to reach the non-toxic range?
- A. 30 minutes
- B. 1 hour
- C. 2 hours
- D. 3 hours
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Half-life is the time required for the serum concentration of a drug to decrease by 50%. After 1 hour, the serum concentration would be 25 units/mL (50/2) if the body can properly metabolize and excrete the drug. After 2 hours, the serum concentration would be 12.5 units/mL (25/2) and reach the nontoxic range. In 30 minutes the drug level would be 37.5 units/mL, whereas in 3 hours the drug level would be 6.25.
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