Nokea
Twenty minutes after starting a heat application, the client mentions that the heating pad no longer feels warm enough. What is the best response by the LPN/LVN?
- A. That indicates you have derived the maximum benefit, and the heat can be removed.
- B. Your blood vessels are dilating and removing the heat from the site.
- C. We will increase the temperature by 5 degrees when the pad no longer feels warm.
- D. The body's receptors adapt over time as they are exposed to heat.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Choice D is the correct response. The body's receptors adapt to the heat over time, which can explain why the client no longer perceives the warmth from the heating pad. This phenomenon is known as thermal adaptation. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is inaccurate because the client not feeling the warmth does not necessarily mean they have derived the maximum benefit. Choice B incorrectly states that blood vessels dilating remove heat, which is not accurate. Choice C suggests increasing the temperature when the pad no longer feels warm, which could potentially lead to burns or discomfort for the client.
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A healthcare provider is providing teaching about health promotion guidelines to a group of young adult male clients. Which of the following guidelines should the healthcare provider include?
- A. Obtain a tetanus booster every 5 years.
- B. Obtain a herpes zoster immunization by age 50.
- C. Have a dental examination every 6 months.
- D. Have a testicular examination every 2 years.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Having a dental examination every 6 months is crucial for young adult males as it helps in maintaining good oral health and detecting any potential issues early on. Tetanus booster every 10 years is recommended for adults, not every 5 years (Choice A). Herpes zoster immunization is typically recommended for individuals aged 60 and older, not by age 50 (Choice B). While testicular self-examination is important for detecting testicular cancer, routine clinical testicular examinations are not generally needed every 2 years (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is to have a dental examination every 6 months.
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer gentamicin 2 mg/kg via IV bolus to a client who weighs 220 lb. How many mg should the healthcare professional administer?
- A. 200 mg
- B. 100 mg
- C. 160 mg
- D. 180 mg
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: To calculate the dosage correctly, the weight in pounds must first be converted to kilograms. 220 lb / 2.2 = 100 kg. Then, multiply the weight in kg by the dosage of 2 mg/kg: 2 mg/kg 100 kg = 200 mg. Therefore, the correct dosage to administer is 200 mg, which is closest to option A. Option C (160 mg) is incorrect because it does not match the calculated dosage. Options B (100 mg) and D (180 mg) are also incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation.
During a neurological assessment, a healthcare provider is evaluating a client's balance. Which of the following examinations should the provider use for this purpose?
- A. Romberg test
- B. Deep tendon reflexes
- C. Mini-Mental State Examination
- D. Babinski reflex
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The Romberg test is utilized to assess the client's balance and proprioception by having them stand with their eyes closed. This test helps evaluate sensory ataxia, a condition where an individual's balance is affected due to impaired sensory input. Deep tendon reflexes (Choice B) are assessed by tapping a tendon with a reflex hammer to evaluate the integrity of the spinal cord and peripheral nerves; this is not directly related to balance assessment. The Mini-Mental State Examination (Choice C) is a cognitive screening tool used to assess cognitive impairment or dementia, not balance. The Babinski reflex (Choice D) is elicited by stroking the sole of the foot to assess neurologic function, particularly in the corticospinal tract, and is not specific to balance evaluation.
A client reports constipation, and a nurse is providing dietary teaching. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?
- A. Macaroni and cheese
- B. One medium apple with skin
- C. One cup of plain yogurt
- D. Roast chicken and white rice
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: One medium apple with skin. Foods high in fiber, like apples with skin, are recommended to relieve constipation due to their fiber content, which aids in bowel regularity. Macaroni and cheese, yogurt, and roast chicken with white rice do not provide as much fiber and are less effective in alleviating constipation. While yogurt can sometimes contain probiotics that support gut health, it is not as effective in treating constipation as high-fiber foods like apples.
A charge nurse is assigning tasks to a nurse and assistive personnel for a group of clients. Which of the following tasks should the charge nurse delegate to the AP?
- A. Report ABG results to the provider
- B. Instruct a client about how to use an incentive spirometer
- C. Administer an enteral feeding to a client who has an established gastrostomy tube
- D. Monitor the color of a client's urinary output
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because monitoring the color of a client's urinary output is a task that can be safely delegated to assistive personnel. This task involves basic observation and does not require specialized nursing knowledge or skills. Choice A is incorrect because reporting ABG results to the provider requires interpretation and critical thinking skills typically performed by a nurse. Choice B is incorrect as instructing a client about how to use an incentive spirometer involves educating and assessing the client, which is a nursing responsibility. Choice C is incorrect as administering enteral feeding to a client with a gastrostomy tube requires nursing expertise to ensure proper technique and monitoring for complications.