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Two hours ago, a multigravid client was admitted in active labor with her cervix dilated at 5 cm and completely effaced and the fetus at 0 station. Currently, the client is experiencing nausea and vomiting, a slight chill with perspiration beads on her lip, and extreme irritability. The nurse should first:
- A. Warm the temperature of the room by a few degrees.
- B. Increase the rate of intravenous fluid administration.
- C. Obtain an order for an intramuscular antiemetic medication.
- D. Assess the client's cervical dilation and station.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Nausea, chills, perspiration, and irritability are signs of the transition phase (8–10 cm dilation). Assessing cervical dilation and station confirms progression and guides care. Warming the room, increasing fluids, or administering antiemetics are secondary.
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A nurse is counseling a client about the use of a diaphragm. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Insert the diaphragm up to 12 hours before intercourse.
- B. Use spermicide with the diaphragm for each act of intercourse.
- C. Remove the diaphragm immediately after intercourse.
- D. Store the diaphragm in a hot, humid environment.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Using spermicide with the diaphragm for each act of intercourse is essential for effectiveness. It can be inserted up to 6 hours before intercourse, should be left in place for at least 6 hours after, and stored in a cool, dry place.
To determine whether a primigravid client in labor with a fetus in the left occipitoanterior (LOA) position is completely dilated, the nurse performs a vaginal examination. During the examination the nurse should palpate which of the following cranial sutures?
- A. Sagittal.
- B. Lambdoidal.
- C. Coronal.
- D. Frontal.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the LOA position, the fetus's occiput is anterior, and the sagittal suture (running midline along the skull) is most accessible during vaginal examination to assess dilation and fetal position. Other sutures are less prominent in this presentation.
Two hours after vaginally delivering a viable male neonate under epidural anesthesia, the client with a midline episiotomy ambulates to the bathroom to void. After voiding, the nurse assesses the client's bladder, finding it distended. The nurse interprets this finding based on the understanding that the client's bladder distention is most likely caused by which of the following?
- A. Prolonged first stage of labor.
- B. Urinary tract infection.
- C. Pressure of the uterus on the bladder.
- D. Edema in the lower urinary tract area.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Edema in the lower urinary tract, often from delivery trauma or epidural anesthesia, can cause urinary retention and bladder distention.
An infant born premature at 34 weeks is receiving gavage feedings. The client holding her infant asks why the nurse places a pacifier in the infant's mouth during these feedings. The nurse replies that the pacifier helps in what ways? Select all that apply.
- A. Teaches the infant to suck and swallow.
- B. Provides oral stimulation.
- C. Keeps oral mucus membranes moist while the tube is in place.
- D. Reminds the infant how to suck.
- E. Stimulates secretions that help gastric emptying.
Correct Answer: B,D
Rationale: The pacifier provides oral stimulation and reminds the infant how to suck, promoting oral motor development.
When developing the plan of care for a primiparous client during the first 12 hours after vaginal delivery, which of the following concerns of the client should be the nurse's primary focus of care?
- A. The neonate.
- B. The family.
- C. The client's own comfort.
- D. The client's significant other.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the first 12 hours postpartum, the nurse's primary focus is the client's physical and emotional comfort to promote recovery and prevent complications.