Nokea
Under what circumstances can an individual receive medical care without giving informed consent?
- A. when the durable power of attorney for health care is not available
- B. in an emergency, life-or-death situation
- C. when the physician is not available for discussion with the client
- D. when they (clients) are not able to speak for themselves
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An individual may receive medical care without giving informed consent in an emergency, life-or-death situation. This exception allows healthcare providers to provide immediate treatment to save a person's life or prevent serious harm when time is of the essence. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because in all other situations, informed consent is required. The durable power of attorney for health care should be involved if available, the physician should have a discussion with the client in non-life-threatening situations, and in cases where clients are unable to speak for themselves, their designated representative or responsible party should be involved in the consent process.
You may also like to solve these questions
What is distraction therapy?
- A. Focusing one's attention on stimuli other than pain.
- B. Cognitive reappraisal.
- C. The replacement of positive images of pain with other images.
- D. The use of medication and meditation.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Distraction therapy involves directing attention away from pain towards positive stimuli, which can help reduce the perception of pain. Choice A is the correct answer as it accurately defines distraction therapy. Cognitive reappraisal (Choice B) involves changing the way one thinks about a situation to alter its emotional impact, which is different from distraction therapy. Choice C is incorrect because distraction therapy does not involve replacing images of pain with other images, but rather focusing on something unrelated. Choice D is incorrect as distraction therapy does not necessarily involve medication or meditation, but rather the redirection of attention.
When assessing a client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), the nurse should expect which of the following findings?
- A. mental confusion
- B. muscular weakness
- C. sensory loss
- D. emotional liability
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Clients with ALS typically present with progressive muscular weakness and wasting as a hallmark feature of the disease. This weakness affects voluntary muscles, leading to challenges in mobility and daily activities. Sensory loss is not a characteristic feature of ALS, and individuals usually maintain their mental clarity without experiencing mental confusion. Emotional liability, characterized by sudden, uncontrolled changes in emotions, is not a common finding in ALS. While individuals may experience periods of grief due to the progressive nature of the disease, emotional liability is not a usual manifestation. Therefore, the correct finding to expect when assessing a client with ALS is muscular weakness.
What is a common side effect of Rifampin concerning the client's contact lenses?
- A. The client's urine might turn blue.
- B. The client remains infectious to others for 48 hours.
- C. The client's contact lenses might be stained orange.
- D. The client's skin might take on a crimson glow.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is that the client's contact lenses might be stained orange. Rifampin has the unusual effect of turning body fluids an orange color. Soft contact lenses might become permanently stained, making this an important side effect for the client to be aware of. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. There is no documented effect of Rifampin causing the client's urine to turn blue, the client remaining infectious for 48 hours, or the client's skin taking on a crimson glow.
When observing a dressing change by a graduate nurse on a Stage III pressure ulcer to the greater trochanter by the staff nurse, a need for further teaching is indicated after the following observation by the nurse:
- A. The new graduate nurse irrigates the pressure ulcer with 50cc of NS.
- B. The new graduate irrigates the pressure ulcer with half-strength hydrogen peroxide.
- C. The new graduate packs the wound with sterile kerlix soaked in NS.
- D. The new graduate applies a Duoderm dressing over the wound after cleansing.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is that the new graduate irrigates the pressure ulcer with half-strength hydrogen peroxide. Pressure ulcers should not be cleaned with substances that are cytotoxic, such as hydrogen peroxide or betadine. This can cause further damage to the wound and delay the healing process. Choice A is incorrect because irrigating the pressure ulcer with normal saline is an appropriate practice. Choice C is incorrect because packing the wound with sterile kerlix soaked in normal saline is also an appropriate step. Choice D is incorrect because applying a Duoderm dressing after cleansing is a standard procedure in wound care.
Why is accurate documentation of assessment findings regarding pressure ulcers crucial?
- A. To comply with legal requirements for documenting lesions.
- B. To meet hospital policies for documenting lesions.
- C. To fulfill physician's documentation requirements for lesions.
- D. Because the nursing assessment of ulcers is a standard of nursing practice.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Accurate documentation of assessment findings regarding pressure ulcers is crucial because the nursing assessment of ulcers is a standard practice in nursing care. Documenting these findings not only ensures continuity of care but also plays a vital role in preventing further progression of the ulcer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while laws, hospital policies, and physician requirements may influence documentation practices, the primary reason for accurate documentation lies in the standards of nursing practice and the quality of patient care.