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Upon arrival of a client transferred to the surgical unit, what should the nurse plan to do first?
- A. Assess the patency of the airway
- B. Check tubes and drains for patency
- C. Check the dressing for bleeding
- D. Assess the vital signs to compare them with preoperative measurements
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The initial action for the nurse upon the arrival of a client to the surgical unit is to assess the patency of the airway. This step takes priority to ensure that the client has a clear airway for adequate breathing. Checking tubes and drains for patency, inspecting the dressing for bleeding, and assessing vital signs to compare with preoperative measurements are important subsequent steps in the assessment process. However, ensuring the airway is patent is the immediate priority to maintain the client's respiratory function and overall well-being.
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A client with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) asks, "Will my children develop this disease?" How should the nurse respond?
- A. No genetic link is known, so your children are not at increased risk.
- B. Your sons will develop this disease because it has a sex-linked gene.
- C. Only if both you and your spouse are carriers of this disease.
- D. Each of your children has a 50% risk of having ADPKD.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Children whose parent has the autosomal dominant form of PKD have a 50% chance of inheriting the gene that causes the disease. ADPKD is transmitted as an autosomal dominant trait and therefore is not gender-specific. Both parents do not need to have this disorder. Choice A is incorrect because ADPKD has a known genetic link and a definitive mode of inheritance. Choice B is incorrect as ADPKD is not sex-linked but autosomal dominant. Choice C is incorrect because ADPKD follows an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern and does not require both parents to be carriers for the child to inherit the disease.
A patient has been taking spironolactone (Aldactone) to treat heart failure. The nurse will monitor for
- A. hyperkalemia.
- B. hypermagnesemia.
- C. hypocalcemia.
- D. hypoglycemia.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic commonly used in heart failure management. One of the major side effects of spironolactone is hyperkalemia, which is an elevated level of potassium in the blood. Monitoring for hyperkalemia is crucial as it can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypermagnesemia (choice B) is not typically associated with spironolactone use. Hypocalcemia (choice C) and hypoglycemia (choice D) are also not directly linked to the use of spironolactone in heart failure treatment.
A nurse contacts the healthcare provider after reviewing a client's laboratory results and noting a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 35 mg/dL and a creatinine of 1.0 mg/dL. For which action should the nurse recommend a prescription?
- A. Intravenous fluids
- B. Hemodialysis
- C. Fluid restriction
- D. Urine culture and sensitivity
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The normal range for BUN is 10 to 20 mg/dL, and for creatinine, it is 0.6 to 1.2 mg/dL in males and 0.5 to 1.1 mg/dL in females. Creatinine is a more specific marker for kidney function compared to BUN. In this case, the client's creatinine level is within the normal range, indicating a non-renal cause for the elevated BUN. Dehydration is a common cause of increased BUN, so the appropriate action would be to recommend intravenous fluids to address the dehydration. Fluid restriction is not indicated as the client needs hydration. Hemodialysis is not appropriate for dehydration and is typically reserved for renal failure. The laboratory results do not suggest an infection, making a urine culture and sensitivity unnecessary in this scenario.
A nurse cares for adult clients who experience urge incontinence. For which client should the nurse plan a habit training program?
- A. A 78-year-old female who is confused
- B. A 65-year-old male with diabetes mellitus
- C. A 52-year-old female with kidney failure
- D. A 47-year-old male with arthritis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: For a bladder training program to succeed in a client with urge incontinence, the client must be alert, aware, and able to resist the urge to urinate. Habit training will work best for a confused client. This includes going to the bathroom (or being assisted to the bathroom) at set times. The other clients may benefit from other types of bladder training. A confused client may need structured assistance to establish a regular bathroom routine, which can help manage urge incontinence effectively. Clients with diabetes mellitus, kidney failure, or arthritis may require different strategies tailored to their specific conditions.
A young female client prescribed amoxicillin (Amoxil) for a urinary tract infection is being taught by a nurse. Which statement should the nurse include in this client's teaching?
- A. Use a second form of birth control while taking this medication.
- B. You will experience increased menstrual bleeding while on this medication.
- C. You may experience an irregular heartbeat while on this medication.
- D. Watch for blood in your urine while taking this drug.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct statement for the nurse to include in the teaching is to advise the client to use a second form of birth control while taking amoxicillin. Penicillin, like amoxicillin, may reduce the effectiveness of estrogen-containing contraceptives, making it important to use additional contraceptive measures. The incorrect choices are B, C, and D. Increased menstrual bleeding, irregular heartbeat, or blood in the urine are not common side effects associated with amoxicillin use for a urinary tract infection.