Nokea
Warm compresses are ordered for an open wound. Which action is appropriate for the nurse?
- A. Use sterile technique when applying the compresses.
- B. Leave the compresses on the area continuously, pouring warm solution on the area when it cools down.
- C. Alternate warm compresses with cold compresses.
- D. Apply a wet dressing and cover it with a dry dressing.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Using sterile technique when applying the compresses is crucial to prevent infection and promote wound healing. Ensuring a clean environment during wound care reduces the risk of introducing pathogens that can lead to complications. Proper infection control measures play a significant role in the healing process of open wounds. Choice B is incorrect because leaving the compresses on continuously can lead to skin damage or thermal injury. Choice C is incorrect as alternating warm compresses with cold compresses is not appropriate for an open wound. Choice D is incorrect as applying a wet dressing without following specific orders can be detrimental to wound healing.
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A client is admitted with a diagnosis of left-sided heart failure. Which assessment finding is most consistent with this diagnosis?
- A. Dependent edema.
- B. Ascites.
- C. Nocturia.
- D. Orthopnea.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Orthopnea (D) is most consistent with left-sided heart failure. It is characterized by difficulty breathing when lying flat and is relieved by sitting up or standing. Dependent edema (A), ascites (B), and nocturia (C) are more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure. Dependent edema refers to swelling due to fluid accumulation, ascites is the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity, and nocturia is the excessive need to urinate during the night, all of which are more indicative of right-sided heart failure.
The client is being taught how to perform active range of motion (ROM) exercises. To exercise the hinge joints, which action should the client be instructed to perform?
- A. Tilt the pelvis forwards and backwards
- B. Bend the arm by flexing the ulnar to the humerus
- C. Turn the head to the right and left
- D. Extend the arm at the side and rotate it in circles
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hinge joints, like the elbow, primarily allow movement in one direction, in this case, bending the arm. The correct action to exercise hinge joints is to bend the arm by flexing the ulnar to the humerus. This movement specifically targets the hinge joint and promotes its range of motion. Choices A, C, and D involve movements that do not specifically target hinge joints. Tilt the pelvis involves the ball-and-socket joints of the hip, turning the head involves the pivot joint of the neck, and extending the arm and rotating it in circles involve multiple joints including ball-and-socket and pivot joints.
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of fluid volume excess. Which intervention should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?
- A. Encourage increased fluid intake.
- B. Place the client in a high Fowler's position.
- C. Measure the client's intake and output.
- D. Restrict dietary sodium intake.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Restricting dietary sodium intake (D) is the most critical intervention for a client with fluid volume excess to prevent further fluid retention. Encouraging increased fluid intake (A) would exacerbate the issue by adding more fluid to the body. Placing the client in a high Fowler's position (B) is more relevant for respiratory issues than fluid volume excess. While measuring intake and output (C) is important for assessing fluid balance, restricting sodium intake is the priority as it helps manage fluid levels more effectively by reducing fluid retention.
What assessment finding places a client at risk for problems associated with impaired skin integrity?
- A. Scattered macules on the face
- B. Capillary refill of 5 seconds
- C. Smooth nail texture
- D. Presence of skin tenting
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A capillary refill time greater than 3 seconds indicates poor perfusion, leading to impaired skin integrity. Delayed capillary refill can compromise blood flow to the skin, increasing the risk of pressure ulcers or wounds due to reduced tissue perfusion. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because scattered macules on the face, smooth nail texture, and presence of skin tenting are not direct indicators of impaired skin integrity or risk for skin problems.
In a client with moderate, persistent, chronic neuropathic pain due to diabetic neuropathy who takes gabapentin (Neurontin) and ibuprofen (Motrin, Advil) daily, if Step 2 of the World Health Organization (WHO) pain relief ladder is prescribed, which drug protocol should be implemented?
- A. Continue gabapentin.
- B. Discontinue ibuprofen.
- C. Add aspirin to the protocol.
- D. Add oral methadone to the protocol.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the presence of moderate, persistent, chronic neuropathic pain, the WHO pain relief ladder recommends continuing gabapentin, as it is effective for managing both anxiety and pain. Ibuprofen, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug, is not the mainstay for neuropathic pain relief according to the ladder and can be discontinued if needed. Aspirin is not typically added to the protocol for neuropathic pain management at this step. Methadone is reserved for severe pain and is not the standard choice at Step 2 of the WHO pain relief ladder for neuropathic pain.