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What action should the nurse take when a child presents with fever, sore throat, swollen red spots, and fluid-filled blisters?
- A. Obtain a fluid culture from the blisters
- B. Administer a fever-reducing medication
- C. Cover the drainage vesicles with a dressing
- D. Implement transmission precautions
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When a child presents with fever, sore throat, swollen red spots, and fluid-filled blisters, it may indicate a contagious viral infection. In such cases, implementing transmission precautions is crucial to prevent the spread of the infection to others in the pediatric clinic or community. Obtaining a fluid culture from the blisters (Choice A) may not be necessary at the initial stage without knowing the cause of the infection. Administering a fever-reducing medication (Choice B) may help manage symptoms but doesn't address the need for preventing transmission. Covering the drainage vesicles with a dressing (Choice C) may provide comfort to the child but does not directly address the risk of transmission to others.
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A 10-year-old child is brought to the emergency department after falling from a bicycle and hitting their head. The nurse notes that the child is drowsy and has a headache. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Perform a full neurological assessment
- B. Administer pain medication
- C. Allow the child to rest quietly
- D. Check the child's immunization status
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a child who has fallen and hit their head, presenting with drowsiness and headache, the priority action for the nurse is to perform a full neurological assessment. This is crucial to evaluate the extent of the head injury and monitor for signs of increased intracranial pressure, which could indicate a more severe traumatic brain injury. Administering pain medication or allowing the child to rest quietly are not appropriate initial actions without first assessing the neurological status. Checking the child's immunization status is important for overall health but is not the priority in this acute situation.
The healthcare provider is assessing an infant with pyloric stenosis. Which pathophysiological mechanism is the most likely consequence of this infant's clinical picture?
- A. Metabolic alkalosis.
- B. Respiratory acidosis.
- C. Metabolic acidosis.
- D. Respiratory alkalosis.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pyloric stenosis leads to obstruction at the outlet of the stomach, causing frequent vomiting and loss of stomach acids. This results in a loss of hydrochloric acid and hydrogen ions, leading to metabolic alkalosis due to an increase in serum bicarbonate levels. Therefore, the correct answer is metabolic alkalosis. Choice B, respiratory acidosis, is incorrect as it is not typically associated with pyloric stenosis. Choice C, metabolic acidosis, is incorrect because the loss of stomach acids in pyloric stenosis leads to metabolic alkalosis, not acidosis. Choice D, respiratory alkalosis, is also incorrect as it is not the usual consequence of pyloric stenosis.
The healthcare provider plans to screen only the highest risk children for scoliosis. Which group of children should the healthcare provider screen first?
- A. Girls between ages 10 and 14.
- B. Boys between ages 10 and 14.
- C. Boys and girls between 12 and 14.
- D. Boys and girls between 8 and 12.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Question: The healthcare provider plans to screen only the highest risk children for scoliosis. Which group of children should the healthcare provider screen first? Girls between ages 10 and 14 are at the highest risk for scoliosis and should be screened first as they have a higher incidence of developing scoliosis during their adolescent growth spurt. Early detection and intervention can help prevent further complications associated with scoliosis. Boys between ages 10 and 14 (choice B) are not at the highest risk compared to girls in the same age group. Boys and girls between 12 and 14 (choice C) are at a lower risk compared to girls between ages 10 and 14. Boys and girls between 8 and 12 (choice D) are at a lower risk group compared to girls between ages 10 and 14.
A child with pertussis is receiving azithromycin (Zithromax Injection) IV. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the child's plan of care?
- A. Obtain vital signs to monitor for fluid overload
- B. Change IV site dressing every 3 days and as needed
- C. Monitor for signs of facial swelling or urticaria
- D. Assess for abdominal pain and vomiting
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When administering azithromycin IV, monitoring for signs of an allergic reaction, such as facial swelling or urticaria, is crucial. This helps in early detection of potential adverse reactions and ensures prompt intervention to prevent complications associated with the medication. The other options are not directly related to the administration of azithromycin IV in this scenario. Monitoring for fluid overload would be more relevant for fluid administration, changing IV site dressing is important but not the priority in this case, and assessing for abdominal pain and vomiting may be important but not as critical as monitoring for signs of an allergic reaction.
What is the best response for a two-year-old boy who begins to cry when the mother starts to leave?
- A. Let's wave bye-bye to mommy.
- B. Two-year-olds usually stop crying the minute the parent leaves.
- C. Now be a big boy. Mommy will be back soon.
- D. Let's wave bye-bye to mommy.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The best response for a two-year-old boy who begins to cry when the mother starts to leave is to wave bye-bye to mommy. This action helps the child understand that the separation is temporary and gives him a sense of closure. Choice A is the correct answer. Choice B is incorrect as it generalizes the behavior of two-year-olds. Choice C may invalidate the child's feelings by telling him to 'be a big boy' instead of acknowledging his emotions and providing comfort.