Nokea
What age range is associated with toddlers?
- A. 2 to 4
- B. 6 to 12
- C. 3 to 6
- D. 1 to 3
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 1 to 3 years old. Toddlers are typically children between the ages of 1 to 3 years old. During this stage, children begin to develop their independence and motor skills. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the age range associated with toddlers. Option A (2 to 4 years old) includes children beyond the toddler stage, option B (6 to 12 years old) covers school-age children, and option C (3 to 6 years old) also includes children beyond the toddler years. The key defining factor of toddlers is their age range of 1 to 3 years old.
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Which of the following drugs has the SHORTEST elimination half-life?
- A. Flumazenil
- B. Lorazepam
- C. Midazolam
- D. Diazepam
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Flumazenil has the shortest elimination half-life (~0.7-1.3 hours) compared to midazolam (~1-4 hours), lorazepam (~10-20 hours), and diazepam (~20-70 hours).
Which of the following is a guideline for safe foot care for a resident who has diabetes?
- A. The NA should inspect and clean the resident's feet every day.
- B. The NA should clip the resident's toenails frequently.
- C. The NA should use lotion between the toes to prevent dryness and cracking.
- D. The NA should use hot water for bathing the feet to help prevent infection.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because inspecting and cleaning the resident's feet daily helps in early detection of any cuts, sores, or signs of infection, which is crucial for diabetics to prevent complications. Clipping toenails frequently can lead to cuts and infections. Using lotion between the toes can create a moist environment that promotes fungal growth. Using hot water for bathing can cause burns and dry out the skin, increasing the risk of cracks and infections.
When transferring a resident who has a weak side,
- A. The weaker side moves first
- B. The stronger side moves first
- C. The strong side and weak side move at the same time
- D. It does not matter which side moves first
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because when transferring a resident with a weak side, it is important to move the stronger side first to provide better support and stability. By moving the stronger side first, you can ensure proper weight distribution and reduce the risk of falls or injuries. This approach also helps prevent the weaker side from bearing too much weight or strain.
Choice A is incorrect because moving the weaker side first may compromise the resident's safety and stability. Choice C is incorrect as it can lead to imbalance and increase the risk of falls. Choice D is incorrect because the sequence of movement does matter to ensure a safe transfer for both the resident and the caregiver.
If a nursing assistant encourages a resident to play cards with friends, what kind of wellness is she promoting?
- A. Physical wellness
- B. Social wellness
- C. Emotional wellness
- D. Intellectual wellness
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Social wellness. By encouraging the resident to play cards with friends, the nursing assistant is promoting social interactions and connections. Social wellness focuses on building and maintaining positive relationships, which can improve mental health and overall well-being. Playing cards with friends allows for social engagement, communication, and a sense of belonging. Physical wellness (A) pertains to physical health, emotional wellness (C) involves managing emotions, and intellectual wellness (D) focuses on mental stimulation. However, in this scenario, the emphasis is on promoting social interactions, making choice B the most appropriate answer.
Your adult patient has an altered mental status, and a blood sugar reading of 35 mg/dL is obtained using a glucometer. He is unable to follow commands, and no IV access is available. Which medication and route should be considered?
- A. Glucagon intramuscularly
- B. Oral glucose by mouth
- C. Dextrose intravenously
- D. Glucagon subcutaneously
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Glucagon intramuscularly. Glucagon is indicated for severe hypoglycemia when the patient is unable to take oral glucose and IV access is unavailable. Administering glucagon intramuscularly will rapidly increase blood sugar levels. Oral glucose (choice B) is not suitable for a patient who cannot follow commands. Dextrose intravenously (choice C) requires IV access, which is not available in this case. Glucagon subcutaneously (choice D) may have delayed absorption compared to intramuscular administration.