Nokea
What are signs of neonatal sepsis that a nurse should monitor for?
- A. Tachypnea, poor feeding, and temperature instability
- B. Increased alertness, reduced crying, and stable vitals
- C. Lethargy, poor perfusion, and apnea
- D. Hyperthermia, bradycardia, and cyanosis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because lethargy, poor perfusion, and apnea are classic signs of neonatal sepsis. Lethargy indicates decreased activity and responsiveness, poor perfusion suggests inadequate blood circulation, and apnea is a serious respiratory issue. These signs indicate a systemic infection affecting multiple organs. Choices A, B, and D do not align with typical symptoms of neonatal sepsis. Tachypnea, poor feeding, and temperature instability (Choice A) are more general and can be seen in various conditions. Increased alertness, reduced crying, and stable vitals (Choice B) are not indicative of sepsis, as sepsis typically causes the opposite. Hyperthermia, bradycardia, and cyanosis (Choice D) can be present in sepsis, but they are not as specific or as common as the signs in Choice C.
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What hormone is responsible for the development and maturation of the ovarian follicles?
- A. follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
- B. luteinizing hormone (LH)
- C. estrogen
- D. progesterone
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) is responsible for the development and maturation of ovarian follicles by stimulating them to grow and produce estrogen. FSH plays a crucial role in the menstrual cycle and acts on the ovaries to promote follicular development. LH surge triggers ovulation, estrogen is produced by the developing follicles and progesterone is primarily produced after ovulation by the corpus luteum. Therefore, A is correct as it directly influences the growth and maturation of ovarian follicles.
Which client teaching instruction is necessary for a pregnant client who is to undergo a glucose challenge test (GCT) as part of a routine pregnancy treatment plan at 28 weeks?
- A. No dietary restriction (done 24-28 weeks' gestation)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: No dietary restriction (done 24-28 weeks' gestation). This is because the glucose challenge test (GCT) is typically performed between 24-28 weeks of gestation to screen for gestational diabetes. It is important not to have any dietary restrictions before the test to ensure accurate results. Restricting food intake before the test can lead to false results. Other choices are incorrect because they do not align with the standard practice of performing the GCT between 24-28 weeks and avoiding dietary restrictions before the test.
A client at 30 weeks' gestation is receiving magnesium sulfate for preterm labor. What assessment finding indicates magnesium toxicity?
- A. Deep tendon reflexes +3.
- B. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute.
- C. Urine output of 40 mL/hour.
- D. Blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute. Magnesium sulfate toxicity can lead to respiratory depression, resulting in a decreased respiratory rate. This is a critical sign of magnesium toxicity and should be addressed promptly.
Explanation for other choices:
A: Deep tendon reflexes +3 are actually a common finding in clients receiving magnesium sulfate due to its muscle relaxant effects.
C: Urine output of 40 mL/hour is within the normal range and does not indicate magnesium toxicity.
D: Blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg is also within the normal range and is not a sign of magnesium toxicity.
A woman had a miscarriage at 12 weeks' gestation and had D&C,
- A. While you are assessing her response to loss, she tells you she had
- B. Based on your assessment what nursing intervention would you use first?
- C. You ask her what items she bought for the baby
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the priority in nursing care after a miscarriage and D&C is to assess the woman's physical and emotional well-being. By using the nursing intervention of assessment first, the nurse can determine any immediate needs for pain management, emotional support, or further medical intervention. This helps in providing individualized care and addressing any potential complications promptly.
Choice A is incorrect because assessing her response to loss comes after ensuring her immediate physical and emotional needs are met. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on material items rather than the woman's well-being. Choice D is incomplete and does not provide a viable option for nursing intervention.
A patient vaginally delivered an infant at 4750 g moderate shoulder dystocia occurred during the birth. During the initial assessment of the infant the nurse should look for
- A. Erb's palsy
- B. Bell palsy
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Petechiae
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bradycardia. During shoulder dystocia, the infant may experience umbilical cord compression leading to decreased oxygen supply and potential bradycardia. Bradycardia is a critical sign that requires immediate attention. Erb's palsy (A) is a brachial plexus injury due to shoulder dystocia, not an immediate concern. Bell palsy (B) is a facial nerve paralysis unrelated to birth trauma. Petechiae (D) are small red or purple spots that may indicate bleeding disorders but are not specific to shoulder dystocia.