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What are the clinical manifestations of otitis media?
- A. Earache, wheezing, vomiting
- B. Coughing, rhinorrhea, headache
- C. Fever, irritability, pulling on ear
- D. Wheezing, cough, drainage in ear canal
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fever, irritability, pulling on the ear. Clinical manifestations of otitis media commonly include fever, irritability, and children may show signs of pulling or rubbing their ears. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A includes wheezing and vomiting, which are not typical symptoms of otitis media. Choice B includes coughing, rhinorrhea, and headache, which are more commonly associated with upper respiratory infections rather than otitis media. Choice D includes wheezing, cough, and drainage in the ear canal, which are not typical clinical manifestations of otitis media.
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What could suddenly occur in a child with acute epiglottitis?
- A. Increased carbon dioxide levels
- B. Airway obstruction
- C. Inability to swallow
- D. Bronchial collapse
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In acute epiglottitis, the infected epiglottis becomes inflamed and can lead to sudden airway obstruction, which is a life-threatening emergency. This can cause difficulty breathing and necessitates immediate intervention to secure the airway. Increased carbon dioxide levels may occur due to inadequate ventilation resulting from airway obstruction, but the primary concern is the obstruction itself, not the carbon dioxide levels. Inability to swallow may be present due to pain and swelling in the throat but is not the immediate life-threatening complication associated with acute epiglottitis. Bronchial collapse is not a typical consequence of acute epiglottitis.
The settings on a client's synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV) are respiratory rate 12 breaths/minute, tidal volume at 600 mL, FiO2 35%, and positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) 5 cm H2O. Which assessment finding necessitates immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Bilateral crackles in the lung bases.
- B. Low-pressure indicator alarm.
- C. Oxygen saturation of 91%.
- D. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths/minute.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A low-pressure alarm may indicate a disconnection or leak in the system, which needs immediate intervention. Bilateral crackles in the lung bases may indicate fluid overload but do not require immediate intervention in this case. An oxygen saturation of 91% is concerning but not as urgent as a potential equipment issue. A respiratory rate of 18 breaths/minute is higher than the set rate but may not necessitate immediate intervention unless accompanied by other distress symptoms.
A young female client with 7 children is having frequent morning headaches, dizziness, and blurred vision. Her BP is 168/104. The client reports that her husband recently lost his job and she is not sleeping well. After administering a STAT dose of an antihypertensive IV med, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Measure urine output hourly to assess for renal perfusion
- B. Request a prescription for pain medication
- C. Use an automated BP machine to monitor for hypotension
- D. Provide a quiet environment with low lighting
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Using an automated BP machine is crucial to continuously monitor for hypotension after administering an antihypertensive medication. This is essential to prevent a rapid drop in blood pressure that could lead to complications. Measuring urine output hourly to assess for renal perfusion is important but not the most immediate concern in this situation. Requesting pain medication is not relevant to the primary issue of managing blood pressure. Providing a quiet environment with low lighting may be beneficial for the client's overall well-being but is not as critical as monitoring for potential hypotension.
A client with liver cirrhosis is at risk for developing hepatic encephalopathy. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Kussmaul respirations
- B. Asterixis (flapping tremor)
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hypertension
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Asterixis, also known as a flapping tremor, is a common sign of hepatic encephalopathy, indicating neurological dysfunction due to liver failure. Kussmaul respirations (option A) are associated with metabolic acidosis, which is not a typical manifestation of hepatic encephalopathy. Bradycardia (option C) and hypertension (option D) are not typically associated with hepatic encephalopathy; in fact, hepatic encephalopathy is more commonly associated with alterations in mental status, neuromuscular abnormalities, and changes in behavior.
An older male client tells the nurse that he is losing sleep because he has to get up several times at night to go to the bathroom, that he has trouble starting his urinary stream, and that he does not feel like his bladder is ever completely empty. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Collect a urine specimen for culture analysis
- B. Review the client's fluid intake prior to bedtime
- C. Palpate the bladder above the symphysis pubis
- D. Obtain a fingerstick glucose level
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Palpating the bladder above the symphysis pubis is the most appropriate intervention in this scenario. It helps assess for urinary retention, which is a common issue in older males presenting with symptoms like difficulty starting urinary stream and feeling of incomplete bladder emptying. Collecting a urine specimen for culture analysis (Choice A) may be necessary in other situations like suspected urinary tract infection. Reviewing the client's fluid intake (Choice B) is important but does not directly address the current issue of urinary retention. Obtaining a fingerstick glucose level (Choice D) is not relevant to the client's urinary symptoms.