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What are the key differences between viral and bacterial infections?
- A. Viral infections typically last longer than bacterial infections.
- B. Bacterial infections typically cause high fever.
- C. Both bacterial and viral infections cause rashes.
- D. Viral infections cause sudden onset of symptoms.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Viral infections typically last longer than bacterial infections. This is because viral infections often require the body's immune system to fight off the virus, leading to a longer duration of illness. Bacterial infections, on the other hand, often cause a rapid onset of symptoms due to the toxins produced by bacteria. Choice B is incorrect because not all bacterial infections cause high fever. Choice C is incorrect because rashes can be caused by both bacterial and viral infections, but not always. Choice D is incorrect because while some viral infections may cause a sudden onset of symptoms, it is not a key distinguishing factor between viral and bacterial infections.
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A client with a tracheostomy is exhibiting signs of respiratory distress. What is the nurse's immediate priority?
- A. Increase the oxygen flow rate
- B. Suction the tracheostomy
- C. Notify the physician immediately
- D. Administer a bronchodilator
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a client with a tracheostomy is experiencing respiratory distress, the immediate priority for the nurse is to suction the tracheostomy. This action helps clear the airway of secretions and ensures that the client can breathe effectively. Increasing the oxygen flow rate may be necessary but addressing the airway obstruction is more critical. Notifying the physician immediately is important but may cause a delay in addressing the immediate need for airway clearance. Administering a bronchodilator may help with bronchospasm but should not take precedence over ensuring a clear airway in a client with respiratory distress.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?
- A. A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
- B. Receiving a formula with high osmolarity.
- C. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding.
- D. A residual of 65 mL 1 hour postprandial.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Clients with gastroesophageal reflux disease have a higher risk of aspiration during tube feeding due to the potential for reflux of stomach contents into the lungs. This increases the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. High osmolarity formulas may cause diarrhea but do not directly increase the risk of aspiration. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position actually reduces the risk of aspiration by promoting proper digestion and reducing the chance of regurgitation. A residual of 65 mL 1 hour postprandial is within an acceptable range and does not directly indicate a risk for aspiration.
What are the key steps in administering oral medications to a patient with dysphagia?
- A. Crush medications and mix with food
- B. Use a straw to facilitate swallowing
- C. Encourage the patient to drink thickened liquids
- D. Have the patient lie flat during administration
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Crush medications and mix with food. When administering oral medications to a patient with dysphagia, crushing the medications and mixing them with food is a common method to aid in swallowing. Choice B is incorrect because using a straw could pose a choking hazard for patients with dysphagia. Choice C is incorrect as thickened liquids may not always be suitable for all medications. Choice D is incorrect because having the patient lie flat can increase the risk of aspiration, which is not recommended for patients with dysphagia.
A client with a serum albumin level of 3 g/dL has a pressure ulcer. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Monitor the client's fluid and electrolyte balance
- B. Consult a dietitian to improve the client's nutritional status
- C. Administer a protein supplement
- D. Administer an anti-inflammatory medication
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct first action for a client with a serum albumin level of 3 g/dL and a pressure ulcer is to consult a dietitian to improve the client's nutritional status. Adequate nutrition is essential for wound healing. Monitoring fluid and electrolyte balance is important but not the first priority in this situation. Administering a protein supplement can be considered after dietary evaluation. Administering an anti-inflammatory medication is not the primary intervention for addressing a pressure ulcer related to low albumin levels.
A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following food choices by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. Canned soup
- B. Grilled chicken
- C. Peanut butter
- D. Orange juice
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Grilled chicken is the correct choice as it is a low-potassium, low-sodium option suitable for clients with chronic kidney disease. Canned soup (choice A) is typically high in sodium, which is not recommended for this client population. Peanut butter (choice C) is high in potassium and phosphorus, which should be limited in individuals with kidney disease. Orange juice (choice D) is high in potassium and should be consumed in moderation by clients with chronic kidney disease.