What are the key indicators for cesarean section during labor?
- A. Fetal distress
- B. Failure to progress
- C. Breech presentation
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, as all three choices are key indicators for cesarean section during labor. Fetal distress indicates the baby is not tolerating labor well. Failure to progress may lead to complications for the mother or baby. Breech presentation increases the risk of complications during vaginal delivery. Therefore, all three indicators warrant consideration for a cesarean section to ensure the safety of both the mother and the baby.
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Ms. Carpenter is a 28-year-old female who presents in significant pain she indicates that the discomfort is in the right lower quadrant. The discomfort is colicky in nature and has the patient in tears. Which of the following associated findings increases the index of suspicion for ureteral colic?
- A. Temperature > 102°F
- B. White blood cell count > 14,000 cells/µL
- C. Vomiting
- D. Hematuria
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Temperature > 102°F. A high fever in the context of right lower quadrant colicky pain raises concern for ureteral colic, which is often caused by kidney stones. Fever may indicate infection or obstruction, requiring urgent medical attention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are common findings in cases of ureteral colic but are not as specific to raise the index of suspicion. White blood cell count elevation and hematuria are common with kidney stones, while vomiting is a common symptom due to severe pain. However, fever is a more concerning sign that necessitates prompt evaluation.
Which of the following can lead to placenta praevia?
- A. Grandmultiparity
- B. Preeclampsia
- C. Placenta fenestrate
- D. Placenta increta
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Placenta praevia is more common in women with a history of multiple pregnancies (Grandmultiparity), as repeated stretching of the uterine wall can lead to abnormal placental implantation. Preeclampsia is a separate condition associated with hypertension in pregnancy. Placenta fenestrate and placenta increta are specific placental abnormalities but do not directly cause placenta praevia.
An early sign of a ruptured uterus includes
- A. Maternal dehydration
- B. Maternal pyrexia >38˚C
- C. Maternal oliguria
- D. Failure of cervix to dilate
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A ruptured uterus can lead to fetal distress and necessitate a cesarean section. Failure of the cervix to dilate is indicative of a potential uterine rupture, as the uterus may not be able to contract effectively due to the rupture. Maternal dehydration (A), pyrexia (B), and oliguria (C) are not specific signs of a ruptured uterus and may be present in various other conditions. Therefore, failure of the cervix to dilate is the most relevant early sign in this scenario.
Which one of the following is an obstetric emergency?
- A. Aftercoming head in breech
- B. Complete cephalic presentation
- C. Complete breech presentation
- D. Complete rupture of the uterus
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, complete rupture of the uterus. This is an obstetric emergency due to the risk of severe bleeding and potential harm to both the mother and the fetus. A ruptured uterus can lead to life-threatening complications such as hemorrhage and shock. In contrast, options A, B, and C are not considered obstetric emergencies. Aftercoming head in breech, complete cephalic presentation, and complete breech presentation are normal variations in labor that do not typically require immediate intervention like a ruptured uterus does.
P. T. is a 58-year-old female who is admitted with chest pain and shortness of breath and is found to have a large pulmonary embolus. Her systolic blood pressure is falling, and a diagnosis of obstructive shock is made. Cardiac pressure would likely demonstrate
- A. Elevated atrial and decreased ventricular pressures
- B. Elevated right-sided and decreased left-sided pressures
- C. Elevated left ventricular pressure and decreased cardiac output
- D. Elevated left ventricular pressure and decreased systemic vascular resistance
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because in obstructive shock due to a large pulmonary embolus, there is increased resistance to blood flow out of the right ventricle, leading to elevated right ventricular pressure. This causes a backup of blood into the pulmonary circulation, increasing left ventricular pressure. The increased left ventricular pressure results in decreased cardiac output as the left ventricle struggles to pump against the increased resistance.
A: Elevated atrial and decreased ventricular pressures - This is incorrect as obstructive shock typically results in elevated ventricular pressures due to increased resistance.
B: Elevated right-sided and decreased left-sided pressures - This is partially true, but C is a more complete answer that explains the consequences of these pressures on cardiac output.
D: Elevated left ventricular pressure and decreased systemic vascular resistance - This is incorrect as obstructive shock leads to increased, not decreased, systemic vascular resistance due to the embolus obstructing blood flow.