Nokea
What are the requirements and qualifications for a regional nurse supervisor?
- A. BSN, RN
- B. at least 5 years of experience in public health
- C. Master's in public health
- D. all of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: To become a regional nurse supervisor, one must possess a BSN and RN credentials to ensure clinical competency. Additionally, a minimum of 5 years of experience in public health is required to demonstrate a solid understanding of the field. Lastly, holding a Master's degree in public health is essential for leadership and decision-making roles. Therefore, all the choices (BSN, RN; at least 5 years of experience in public health; Master's in public health) are necessary qualifications for a regional nurse supervisor.
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Which of the following measures the proportion of the population that exhibits a particular disease at a particular time and includes both new and old cases?
- A. proportionate morbidity rate
- B. case fatality rate
- C. incidence ratio
- D. prevalence ratio
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, prevalence ratio. Prevalence ratio measures the proportion of the population with a particular disease at a specific time, including both new and existing cases. Choice A, proportionate morbidity rate, is not a standard term and might confuse students. Choice B, case fatality rate, measures the proportion of deaths from a specific disease compared to the total number of cases but does not include both new and old cases. Choice C, incidence ratio, measures the rate of new cases of a disease in a specific population over a defined period, not considering existing cases.
The nurse is assessing a newborn the day after birth. A high-pitched cry, irritability, and lack of interest in feeding are noted. The mother signed her own discharge against medical advice. What intervention is appropriate nursing care?
- A. Reduce the environmental stimuli
- B. Offer formula every 2 hours
- C. Talk to the newborn while feeding
- D. Rock the baby frequently
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention is to reduce the environmental stimuli. In this scenario, the newborn is displaying signs of overstimulation and distress, which can be exacerbated by environmental factors. Offering formula every 2 hours (Choice B) may not address the underlying issue of overstimulation. Talking to the newborn while feeding (Choice C) and rocking the baby frequently (Choice D) may further stimulate the newborn, which is not appropriate in this case.
An example of secondary prevention strategy would be:
- A. Screening for breast cancer in women who have no symptoms
- B. Using pain control medications for terminal cancer patients
- C. Educating teenagers about using condoms to prevent STDs
- D. None of the above
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Screening for breast cancer is a secondary prevention strategy aimed at early detection, which falls under secondary prevention as it focuses on early identification and intervention before the disease progresses. Choice B is incorrect as it refers to palliative care for symptom management in terminal cancer patients, which is not a secondary prevention strategy. Choice C is incorrect as educating teenagers about condom use is a primary prevention strategy to prevent the initial occurrence of STDs rather than intervening after exposure, making it a primary, not a secondary prevention strategy. Choice D is incorrect as there is a valid example of a secondary prevention strategy provided in choice A.
In a well-child clinic, the nurse examines many children daily. Which of the following toddlers requires further follow-up?
- A. A 13-month-old who is unable to walk
- B. A 20-month-old who is only using 2 and 3 word sentences
- C. A 24-month-old who cries during examination
- D. A 30-month-old who is only drinking from a sip cup
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a 30-month-old should have developed the skill to drink from a regular cup by this age. Drinking from a sip cup at this stage may indicate a delay in development. Choices A, B, and C are not as concerning as they can be within the range of normal development. A 13-month-old not walking yet, a 20-month-old using 2 and 3 word sentences, and a 24-month-old crying during examination are all behaviors that can fall within the spectrum of typical development for their respective ages.
The healthcare provider is evaluating the health status of a 16-year-old client with a history of Type 1 diabetes. Which laboratory test would provide the most accurate information about long-term blood glucose control?
- A. Blood glucose level
- B. Glycosylated hemoglobin
- C. Urine ketones
- D. Serum insulin level
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c). Glycosylated hemoglobin provides valuable information about blood glucose control over the past 2-3 months. This test measures the average blood sugar levels during this period, offering a more comprehensive view of long-term glycemic control. Choice A, blood glucose level, reflects the blood sugar concentration at the time of testing and may fluctuate throughout the day. Choice C, urine ketones, indicates the presence of ketones and is more relevant for assessing acute complications like diabetic ketoacidosis. Choice D, serum insulin level, evaluates insulin production and is not a direct indicator of long-term blood glucose control in diabetes management.