Nokea
What causes hepatic encephalopathy?
- A. Buildup of ammonia in the body
- B. Buildup of urea in the body
- C. Fatty infiltration of the liver
- D. Jaundice
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Hepatic encephalopathy is caused by the buildup of ammonia in the body, not urea. Ammonia accumulates due to liver dysfunction, leading to neurological symptoms. Fatty infiltration of the liver may lead to conditions like non-alcoholic fatty liver disease, but it is not the direct cause of hepatic encephalopathy. Jaundice is a symptom of liver dysfunction but is not the primary cause of hepatic encephalopathy.
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The nurse is preparing a postoperative nursing care plan for the client recovering from a hemorrhoidectomy. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Establish a rapport with the client to decrease embarrassment when assessing the site
- B. Encourage the client to lie in the lithotomy position twice a day
- C. Milk the tube inserted during surgery to allow the passage of flatus
- D. Digitally dilate the rectal sphincter to express old blood
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Establishing rapport with the client is essential in postoperative care to create a trusting relationship, decrease embarrassment, and improve the client's comfort during assessments. Choice B is incorrect because the lithotomy position is not typically recommended post-hemorrhoidectomy. Choice C is incorrect because milking the tube inserted during surgery is not a standard practice after a hemorrhoidectomy. Choice D is incorrect as digitally dilating the rectal sphincter can cause harm and is not a part of routine post-hemorrhoidectomy care.
The nurse is preparing a teaching care plan for the client diagnosed with nephritic syndrome. Which intervention should the nurse include?
- A. Discontinue the use of steroid therapy immediately if symptoms develop.
- B. Take diuretics as needed to treat the dependent edema in ankles.
- C. Increase the intake of dietary sodium every day to decrease fluid retention.
- D. Report any decrease in daily weight during treatment to the healthcare provider.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for the nurse to include in the care plan for a client diagnosed with nephritic syndrome is to instruct the client to report any decrease in daily weight during treatment to the healthcare provider. A decrease in weight could indicate worsening of the nephritic syndrome or dehydration, making it crucial information for the healthcare provider to assess the client's condition. Option A is incorrect because discontinuing steroid therapy should be done under medical guidance rather than immediately if symptoms develop. Option B is incorrect because diuretics should not be taken without healthcare provider's guidance due to the risk of electrolyte imbalances. Option C is incorrect as increasing dietary sodium would exacerbate fluid retention, which is undesirable in nephritic syndrome.
The nurse is caring for a client in a sickle cell crisis. Which is the pain regimen of choice to relieve the pain?
- A. Frequent aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) and a non-narcotic analgesic
- B. Motrin (ibuprofen), an NSAID, PRN
- C. Demerol (meperidine), a narcotic analgesic, every four (4) hours
- D. Morphine, a narcotic analgesic, every two (2) to three (3) hours PRN
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Clinitest is used in testing the urine of a client for glucose. Which of the following, if committed by a nurse, indicates an error?
- A. Specimen is collected after meals
- B. The nurse puts the Clinitest tablet into a test tube
- C. She added 5 drops of urine and 10 drops of water
- D. If the color becomes orange or red, it is considered
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When conducting a Clinitest for testing urinary glucose levels, it is essential to add the correct amounts of urine and Clinitest reagent as instructed. Adding more water than urine could dilute the sample, leading to inaccurate test results. It's important to follow the correct ratio of drops specified in the instructions for an accurate reading. Choice A is incorrect as the specimen should be collected before meals for accurate results. Choice B is incorrect as it should be the Clinitest tablet, not the clingiest tablet. Choice D is incorrect as the statement is incomplete and lacks clarity.
The nurse enters a client's room and the client is demanding release from the hospital. The nurse reviews the client's record and noted that the client was admitted 2 days ago for treatment of an anxiety disorder, and the admission was voluntary. Which intervention should the nurse initiate first?
- A. Telephone the client's family and have them persuade the client to stay
- B. Have the client read and sign all the appropriate self-discharge papers
- C. Explain to the client that he cannot leave because he asked for treatment
- D. Notify the client's healthcare provider of the client's stated intent to leave the hospital
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for the nurse to initiate first is to notify the client's healthcare provider of the client's stated intent to leave the hospital. This action is crucial as it ensures that the client's care and safety are appropriately managed. Option A is not the best choice as involving the family to persuade the client may not address the client's underlying concerns. Option B is incorrect because having the client sign self-discharge papers without further assessment is not appropriate. Option C is also incorrect as the client's request for treatment does not prevent them from leaving if they are deemed competent to make that decision.